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UPSC CDS II Exam 2019 – English Paper (Answer Key)

UPSC (Union Public Service Commission) conduct the CDS (Combined Defence Services) II Exam – 2019. CDS II 2019 Paper held on 08 September 2019. This paper is English Section. CDS II 2019 English Paper Answer Key available here.

Exam  – CDS II 2019
Organized by – UPSC
Subject – English
Date of Exam – 08 September, 2019
Number of Question  –
120 

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UPSC CDS (II) 2019 Question Paper With Answer Key
Subject – English 

COMPREHENSION

Directions : In this section, you have few short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

Passage – 1

Mankind’s experience of various evolutionary changes from primitive time to the present day has been extensive and varied. However, man’s problems were never before as they seem to be today. Man’s economic activity centres primarily around production. Labour is said to be the primary factor of production; its role, therefore, has been given a lot of importance. It should be useful to have an overall view of the economic history of man-from the modern factory system and study its relevance to the various labour problems of today.

Initially, man passed through ‘the hunting and fishing stage’. During this period, his basic needs were adequately met by Nature. Wild animals, birds and fruits satisfied his hunger, and his thirst was quenched by the waters of springs and rivers. Caves gave him shelter and barks of trees were used as clothing. During this stage of man’s progress, labour problems did not exist because of the absence of any economic, political and social systems.

Then came ‘the pastoral stage’, which was marked by a certain amount of economic activity. The nomadic and migratory nature of man persisted, and, together with his goats and cattle, he moved on to fresh pastures and meadows. Some conflicts would sometimes take place among herd-owners, for, during this period, the institution of nominal private property ownership was not known.

This stage paves the way for ‘the agricultural stage’, during which the class system began to develop. There was a small artisan class mostly self-employed; and there were also landed proprietors or Zamindars as well as slaves. Thus, arose the feudal system. During the fourth stage of these developments, ‘the handicrafts stage’, a number of social and economic changes took place which marked the beginning of the labour problem in the world. The self-sufficient economy of the villas underwent a drastic change. The community of traders and merchants emerged.

1. Humanity’s evolution from primitive stage to the present has been
(a) static and smooth
(b) huge and diversified
(c) always violent
(d) always peaceful

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Answer – (B)

2. …“man’s problems were never before as complicated as they seem to be today” means
(a) the present times are the best times of humanity
(b) the present times are the crucial period humanity
(c) the present times pose much more challenges to humans than the previous time
(d) the present times provide much more facilities than the previous times

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Answer – (C)

3. Why does the author say that labour problems did not exist during ‘the hunting and fishing stage’?
(a) There was no nation existing at that time
(b) There were no economic, political and social systems
(c) There was no capitalism and market
(d) There was no labour law

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Answer – (B)

4. “The pastoral stage was marked by a certain amount of economic activity.” How?
(a) Humans started migrating and held goat-herds
(b) Humans started owning land
(c) Conflicts started as humans owned goats
(d) Humans started doing agriculture

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Answer – (A)

5. Which word in the passage means ‘surfaced’?
(a) Quenched
(b) Emerged
(c) Nomadic
(d) Adequately

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Answer – (B)

Passage – II

Ever since independence, land reforms have been a major instrument of State policy to promote both equity and agricultural investment. Unfortunately, progress on land reforms has been slow, reflecting the resilience of structures of power that gave rise to the problem in the first place.

The main instrument for realizing more equitable distribution of land is the land ceiling laws. There laws were enacted by several States during the late 1950s and 1960s, and the early 1970s saw more stringent amendments in the laws to plug loopholes in the earlier laws. But the record of implementation has not been satisfactory. Around 3 million hectares of land has been declared surplus so far, which is hardly 2 percent of net sown area in India. About 30 percent of this land has not yet been distributed as it is caught up in the litigations. Besides, a number of Benami and clandestine transactions have resulted in illegal possession of significant amounts of land above ceiling limits. There are widespread reports of allotment of inferior, unproductive, barren and wasteland to landless household, many of whom have been forced to sell it off, in the absence of resources to make it productive. In many instances, lands allotted to the rural poor under the ceiling laws are not in their possession. In some cases, Pattas were issued to the beneficiaries, but possession of land show in the Pattas was not given, or corresponding changes were not made in the records of right.

The balance of power in rural India is so heavily weighed against the landless and the poor that implementing land ceiling laws is difficult. It is clear that without massive mobilization of the rural poor and depending on democratic governance in rural India, very little can be achieved in this direction.

Although half of India’s population continues to depend on agriculture as its primary source of livelihood, 83 percent of farmers operate holdings of less than 2 hectares in size, and the average holding size is only 1.23 hectares. This is often in fragments and unirrigated. There are also those who are entirely landless, although agriculture is their main source of livelihood. They have inadequate financial resources to purchase and often depend on leasing in small plots, on insecure terms, for short periods, sometimes only for one season. Hence, many face insecurity of tenure and the growing threat of land alienation and pressure from urbanization, industrialization and powerful interest.

6. Why does the land reform prove to be slow?
(a) Because of the disparity in power structure
(b) Because of the power of the government
(c) Because States have different laws
(d) Because of the scarcity of land in the country

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Answer – (A)

7. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Land ceiling laws have proved to be unsatisfactory.
2. The democratic structure of the government cannot provide solution to the problem of land reforms.
3. The owners of land have abundant natural resources.
4 Identified land for distribution has not been distributed due to court cases against it.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 only
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4

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Answer – (A)

8. One of the reasons of selling off the lands by the allottees is that the lands were
(a) unproductive and barren
(b) salty, not getting water
(c) fertile, but uncultivable
(d) with the powerful people

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Answer – (A)

9. Which word/group of words in the passage means ‘lawsuit’?
(a) Amendments
(b) Litigations
(c) Illegal possession
(d) Fragments

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Answer – (B)

10. According to the author, what is the primary source of livelihood of majority of India’s population?
(a) Industry
(b) Forest
(c) Agriculture
(d) None

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Answer – (C)

11. “There are also those who are entirely landless, although agriculture is their main source of livelihood” means
(a) they do not have money to buy lands
(b) they have sold off their lands to others
(c) most of them are agriculture labourers
(d) they are migrant labourers from other places

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Answer – (A)

Passage – III

Despite downsizings, workers’ overall job satisfaction actually improved between 1988 and 1994. Some reasons, given were improved work flow, better cooperation between departments, and increased fairness in supervision. Many firms today rely on attitude surveys to monitor how employees feel about working in their firms.

The use of employee attitude surveys had grown since 1944 when the National Industrial Conference Board “had difficulty finding fifty companies that had conducted opinion surveys”. Today, most companies are aware of the need for employees’ anonymity, the impact of both the design of the questions and their sequence, the importance of effective communication, including knowing the purpose of the survey before it is taken and getting feedback to the employees after it is completed. Computerization of surveys can provide anonymity, if there is no audit trail to the user, especially for short answers that are entered rather than written or typed on an identifiable machine.

Survey software packages are available that generate questions for a number of standard topics and can be customized by modifying existing questions or by adding questions. If the survey is computerized, reports can be generated with ease to provide snapshots of a given period of time, trend analysis, and breakdowns according to various demographics. You may be interested in responses by age, sex, job categories, departments, division, functions or geography.

The survey can be conducted by placing microcomputers in several locations convenient for employees’ use. Employees are advised where the computers will be, for how long, and when the data will be collected (for instance, daily at 5:00 p.m. for three weeks). The screens should not be viewable to supervisors or passers-by. While there may be some risk that employees will take the survey more than once, there are comparable risks with other methods too.

Managers may be interested in knowing how they are perceived by their peers and subordinates. Packages are available that can be customized, which allow the manager to complete a self-assessment tool used to compare self-perceptions to the anonymous opinions of others. This comparison may assist in the development of a more effective manager.

12. Which one of the following is not the reason for improved job satisfaction of employees?
(a) Improved work flow
(b) Better cooperation between departments
(c) Supervisors’ fairness
(d) Increased remuneration in the

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Answer – (D)

13. Companies feel that it is necessary to
(a) maintain anonymity of the employees and to have effective design and sequence of questions and effective communication
(b) maintain the fairness of the managers to be part of the surveys
(c) conduct surveys from their employees
(d) maintain anonymity of the employees and not to have effective design and sequence of questions and effective communication

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Answer – (C)

14. One major benefit of using survey software packages is
(a) reports can be generated easily
(b) privacy of a person is exposed to the supervisors
(c) employees would like to take up the test on computer
(d) employer can get to know the information immediately

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Answer – (A)

15. Which word in the passage means ‘tendency’?
(a) Trend
(b) Breakdowns
(c) Convenientes
(d) Perceptions

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Answer – (A)

16. “The screens should not be viewable to supervisors or passers-by”
(a) To maintain the secrecy of a person
(b) The main problem is to enable everyone to participate
(c) The manager has to be fair enough
(d) To maintain the problems faced by women in job market

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Answer – (A)

17. What does the word ‘customized’ mean here?
(a) Adapted
(b) Take as it is
(c) Fixed
(d) Mass produced

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Answer – (A)

ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE

Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as, P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

18. the company are often asked (P) / the form the formal or informal interviews (Q) / employees who are leaving (R) / for their opinions during (S)
(a) RPSQ
(b) RQPS
(c) PSQR
(d) PQSR

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Answer – (A)

19. a hailstorm activity in the evenings (P) / there is a possibility of (Q) / while there could be (R) / heavy rain towards the weekend (S)
(a) SQPR
(b) QSRP
(c) QRPS
(d) SPRQ

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Answer – (B)

20. has been below normal since last week (P) / the minimum temperature (Q) / in some part of the city (R) / when rain and hailstorm activity recorded (S)
(a) RSPQ
(b) SPRQ
(c) QPSR
(d) PSQR

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Answer – (C)

CDS Exam (I) 2014 – General Knowledge Paper (Answer Key)

UPSC (Union Public Service Commission) द्वारा आयोजित CDS – (Combined Defence Services) Exam (I) – 2014 की परीक्षा के  सामान्य अध्ययन (General Studies) की उत्तर कुंजी (Answer Key) यहाँ पर उपलब्ध है

परीक्षा – CDS Exam (I) 2014
आयोजक  – UPSC
विषय  – सामान्य ज्ञान (General Knowledge)
Date of Exam – 09 – Feb – 2014
Number of Question  –
120 

UPSC CDS (I) 2014 Exam Paper 
Subject – General Knowledge  

1. भारतीय नौसेना ने अपना पहला उन्नत हल्का हेलिकॉप्टर स्क्वॉड्रन नवम्बर 2013 में कोच्चि में कमीशन किया। उस हेलिकॉप्टर का नाम क्या है ?
(A) चेतक
(B) ध्रुव
(C) रुद्र
(D) चीता

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Answer – (B)

2. भारत के असंगठित क्षेत्र के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-से सही हैं ?
1. संगठित क्षेत्र की तुलना में इस क्षेत्र में श्रमिकों की संख्या अधिक है।
2. रोजगार सुरक्षा तथा कार्य विनियमन असंगठित क्षेत्र में बेहतर हैं।
3. वे सामान्यतः श्रम संघों में संगठित नहीं हैं।
4. श्रमिक सामान्यतः सीमित दिनों के लिए नियुक्त होते हैं।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
(A) 1, 2 और 4
(B) 1, 3 और 4
(C) केवल 3 और 4
(D) केवल 1 और 3

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Answer – (B)

3. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. बक्सर की लड़ाई ने अंग्रेजों को भारत में अपना राज्य स्थापित करने की कुंजी प्रदान की।
2. 1765 में हुई इलाहाबाद की संधि ने ब्रिटिश को बंगाल में अपना राज्य स्थापित करने में मदद की।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं ?
(A) केवल 1
(B) केवल 2
(C) 1 और 2 दोनों
(D) न तो 1 और न ही 2

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Answer – (C)

4. भारत में निगम-कर किसी कम्पनी की आय पर लगाया जाता है। निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी मद में निगम-कर शामिल नहीं है ?
(A) व्यवसाय से लाभ
(B) पूँजीगत अभिलाभ
(C) प्रतिभूतियों पर ब्याज
(D) परिसम्पत्तियों की विक्रय प्राप्ति

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Answer – (D)

5. ‘सहमति की निर्मिति’ की क्षमता को समझने के लिए प्राधान्य के सम्प्रत्यय का प्रयोग किया जाता है। यहाँ प्राधान्य से तात्पर्य है
1. विचारधारात्मक क्षेत्रों में वर्ग उत्कर्ष
2. कमजोर राज्यों/शक्तियों के व्यवहार को आकार देने हेतु विचारधारात्मक संसाधनों का परिनियोजन
3. किसी प्रबल शक्ति द्वारा विश्वव्यापी सार्वजानिक वस्तुओं का प्रावधान
4. सापेक्ष एवं निरपेक्ष रूप से सैन्य प्रभुत्व
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
(A) 1 और 2
(B) 2 और 3
(C) 4
(D) केवल 1

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Answer – (C)

6. नवम्बर 8, 2013 को फिलिपींस में आये प्रचण्ड तूफ़ान से हुए विनाश में उस देश में अनेक लोगों की मृत्यु हो गई। उस प्रचण्ड तूफान का नाम क्या था ?
(A) हैयान
(B) उटोर
(C) फैलिन
(D) नेसाट

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Answer – (A)

7. शान्ति प्रक्रिया में प्रयुक्त असैन्य विश्वास-निर्माण उपायों (CBMs) में शामिल हैं
1. सीमाओं के आर-पार जनता से जनता का सम्पर्क
2. सरकारी एवं गैर-सरकारी अभिकरणों के तहत साहित्यिक एवं सांस्कृतिक पारस्परिक क्रिया
3. यात्रा सुविधाओं में वृद्धि
4. उभयनिष्ठ सामाजिक-आर्थिक समस्याओं के समाधान हेतु संयुक्त पहल
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
(A) केवल 2 और 3
(B) केवल 1 और 3
(C) केवल 2 और 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 और 4

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Answer – (D)

8. भारत में, फर्मों के विलयन तथा अधिग्रहण को किसके द्वारा विनियमित किया जाता है ?
(A) राष्ट्रीय विनिर्माण प्रतिस्पर्धा परिषद्
(B) भारतीय प्रतिस्पर्धा आयोग
(C) भारतीय प्रतिभूति एवं विनिमय बोर्ड
(D) औद्योगिक नीति एवं संवर्धन विभाग

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Answer – (B)

9. प्रारम्भिक मध्यकाल का भारतीय सामन्तवाद के सन्दर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों विचार कीजिए :
1. राजस्व समनुदेशन को ‘भोग’ कहा जाता था।
2. वंशागत प्रधान न तो राजस्व उगाहते थे और न ही प्रशासनिक शक्तियों को धारण करते थे।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं ?
(A) केवल 1
(B) केवल 2
(C) 1 और 2
(D) न तो 1 और न ही 2

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Answer – (A)

10. भारतीय संविधान के भाग III में प्रतिष्ठापित मूल अधिकार “अन्तर्निष्ठ हैं और उन्हें किसी संवैधानिक और कानूनी उपबन्धों से समाप्त नहीं किया जा सकता”। इसे किनके वाद में स्पष्ट किया गया था ?
(A) ए. के. गोपालन बनाम मद्रास राज्य
(B) आइ. सी. गोलकनाथ बनाम पंजाब राज्य
(C) पश्चिम बंगाल राज्य बनाम गणतांत्रिक अधिकार संरक्षण समिति, पश्चिम बंगाल
(D) शंकरी प्रसाद सिंह देव बनाम भारत संघ

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Answer – (B)

11. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. जैन मतावलम्बी मानते हैं कि महावीर के तेईस पूर्ववर्ती थे।
2. पार्श्वनाथ तेईसवें तीर्थंकर थे।
3. महावीर के निकटतम उत्तरवर्ती ऋषभ थे।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं ?
(A) 1 और 2
(B) 2 और 3
(C) केवल 2
(D) केवल 3

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Answer – (A)

12. हिन्द महासागर उपान्त संघ (इंडियन ओशन रिम एसोसिएशन) के विषय में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. संघ की 13वीं मंत्रिपरिषद् बैठक का आयोजन नवम्बर 2013 में पर्थ में हुआ।
2. भारत 2013 से 2015 के लिए संघ का अध्यक्ष चुना गया।
3. संघ में बीस सदस्य-राष्ट्र हैं।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं ?
(A) केवल 1
(B) केवल 2
(C) केवल 1 और 3
(D) 1, 2 और 3

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Answer – (C)

13. ‘जनसंख्या लाभांश’ किसे निर्दिष्ट करता है ?
(A) कुल जनसंख्या
(B) किसी जनसंख्या की तरुण आयु-संरचना
(C) अनुभवी आयुवृद्ध लोगों का अपेक्षाकृत उच्च अनुपात
(D) समृद्धतर क्षेत्रों से निर्धनतर क्षेत्रों की ओर प्रवसन

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Answer – (B)

14. किसी संसदीय दल अथवा गुट को मान्यता प्रदान करते समय लोक सभा अध्यक्ष द्वारा निम्नलिखित किस सिद्धान्त/किन सिद्धान्तों पर ध्यान दिया जाता है ?
1. ऐसे सदस्यों का संघ जिनका सदन के भीतर और बाहर एक संगठन हो
2. ऐसे सदस्यों का संघ जिनकी संख्या, सदन के कुल सदस्यों की संख्या कम-से-कम एक-तिहाई हो
3. ऐसे सदस्यों का संघ जिनका संसदीय कार्य का एक विशिष्ट कार्यक्रम हो
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
(A) 1, 2 और 3
(B) केवल 1
(C) केवल 1 और 3
(D) केवल 2 और 3

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Answer – (B)

15. चतुर्थ बौद्ध संगीति कश्मीर में किसके नेतृत्व में हुई थी ?
(A) बिन्दुसार
(B) अशोक
(C) कुणाल
(D) कनिष्क

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Answer – (D)

16. ‘यू. एन. फ्रंटलाइन वर्कर्स ग्लोबल लीडरशिप पुरस्कार’ के सम्बन्ध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. बिहार की सहायक नर्स एवं दाई मार्था दोदरे को वर्ष 2013 में यह पुरस्कार दिया गया।
2. भारत के बर्ड फ्लू से प्रभावित क्षेत्रों में समर्पित सेवा हेतु मार्था दोदरे को यह पुरस्कार दिया गया।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं ?
(A) केवल 1
(B) केवल 2
(C) 1 और 2 दोनों
(D) न तो 1 और न ही 2

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Answer – (A)

17. नारी सशक्तीकरण पर भारत की संसद की विभागीय समिति के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक कथन सही है ?
(A) यह समिति केवल लोक सभा के सदस्यों से मिलकर बनेगी
(B) कोई मंत्रिमण्डल सदस्य इस समिति का सदस्य हो सकता है
(C) इस समिति के सदस्यों की पदावधि दो वर्ष से अधिक नहीं होगी
(D) यह महिलाओं के लिए कल्याण कार्यक्रमों के कार्यकरण के विषय में प्रतिवेदन देती है

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Answer – (D)

18. नालन्दा विश्वविद्यालय की स्थापना किस गुप्त शासक द्वारा की गई थी ?
(A) कुमारगुप्त II
(B) कुमारगुप्त I
(C) चन्द्रगुप्त II
(D) समुद्रगुप्त

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Answer – (B)

19. प्रो. सी. एन. आर. राव के विषय में निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं ?
1. घन-अवस्था एवं संरचनात्मक रसायन-विज्ञान के वे अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय विशेषज्ञ माने जाते हैं।
2. वे H-इंडेक्स के 100 के स्तर पर पहुँचने वाले पहले भारतीय हैं, जो उनके प्रकाशित शोधकार्य के मुख्य भाग के सुलाभ को प्रदर्शित करता है।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
(A) केवल 1
(B) केवल 2
(C) 1 और 2 दोनों
(D) न तो 1 और न ही 2

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Answer – (C)

20. शेरशाह के प्रशासन के विषय में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. उसने अपने साम्राज्य को सरकारों में विभाजित किया, जिन्हें पुनः परगनाओं में अव-विभाजित किया गया।
2. बिना किसी अन्य कर्मचारी की सहायता से, शेरशाह सरकारों एवं परगनाओं पर सीधे प्रशासन करता था।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं ?
(A) केवल 1
(B) केवल 2
(C) 1 और 2 दोनों
(D) न तो 1 और न ही 2

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Answer – (A)

CDS I Exam 2019 – English Paper (Answer Key)

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UPSC conduct the CDS (Combined Defence Services) I Exam – 2019. CDS I 2019 Paper held on 03 Feb 2019. This paper is English Section. CDS I 2019 English Paper Answer Key available here.

Exam  – CDS I 2019
Organized by – UPSC
Subject – English
Date of Exam – 03 – Feb – 2019
Number of Question  –
120 

 

UPSC CDS (I) 2019 Exam Paper 
Subject – English 

ANTONYMS

Directions :
Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on your Answer Sheet accordingly.

1. His religious views are rather fanatical.
(a) bigoted
(b) rabid
(c) moderate
(d) militant

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Answer – (C)

2. Religious fundamentalists often consider the followers of other religions to be heretics.
(a) dissenter
(b) believer
(c) renegade
(d) apostate

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Answer – (B)

3. According to GB Shaw, men have become inert. Therefore, life force has chosen women to perform its functions.
(a) lively
(b) quiescent
(c) dormant
(d) apathetic

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Answer – (A)

4. Some of the men are highly misanthropic.
(a) anti-social
(b) philosophic
(c) atrophic
(d) philanthropic

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Answer – (D)

5. The teacher was a very profound man.
(a) sincere
(b) erudite
(c) scholarly
(d) superficial

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Answer – (D)

6. His hand-writing is readable.
(a) well-written
(b) decipherable
(c) illegible
(d) comprehensible

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Answer – (C)

7. Mohan is his steadfast friend.
(a) committed
(b) unwavering
(c) unfaltering
(d) unreliable

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Answer – (D)

8. Radha often goes tempestuous while debating
(a) calm
(b) violent
(c) fierce
(d) vehement

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Answer – (A)

9. The thief had very vital information to pass on to the police.
(a) crucial
(b) inessential
(c) indispensable
(d) fundamental

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Answer – (B)

10. His lectures are often wordy and pointless.
(a) diffuse
(b) concise
(c) garrulous
(d) voluble

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Answer – (B)

ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE

Directions :
Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

11. the prize money (P)/ for refusing her (Q)/ Pepsico was ordered (R)/ to compensate the woman (S)
(a) R S Q P
(b) S P Q R
(C) R P S Q
(d) Q R S P

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Answer – (A)

12. trade operating from a colony (Р) / held a meeting (Q) / demanding a probe into the illegal drug (R) / the residents of the city (S)
(a) Q R S P
(b) S P Q R
(c) S Q R P
(d) R S Q P

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Answer – (C)

13. the university authorities cancelled the ongoing students’ union election and (P) / following students’ unrest on campus (Q) / closed till further orders (R) / declared the institution (S)
(a) Q R S P
(b) Q P S R
(c) S Q R P
(d) R S Q P

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Answer – (B)

14. brushed past the latter’s pet dog (P) / stabbed to death by a man (Q) / after his vehicle accidentally (R) / a cargo van driver was allegedly (S)
(a) Q R S P
(b) Q P S R
(c) S Q R P
(d) S Q P R

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Answer – (C)

15. an earthquake and tsunami (P) / the disaster mitigation agency (Q) / said that the death toll from (R) / in Indonesia has crossed 1500 (S)
(a) P Q S R
(b) R P S Q
(c) S Q R P
(d) Q R P S

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Answer – (D)

16 scientists say they have developed a new (P) / illnesses such as heart disease and cancer (Q) / DNA tool that uses machine learning to accurately (R) / predict people’s height and assess their risk for serious (S)
(a) P R S Q
(b) R P S Q
(c) P S R Q
(d) Q R P S

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Answer – (A)

17. a rare evergreen tree in the Southern Western Ghats (P) / researchers have found that (Q) / common white-footed ants are the best pollinators of (R) / bees might be the best known pollinators but (S)
(a) P R S Q
(b) S Q R P
(c) Q S R P
(d) P Q R S

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Answer – (C)

18. say from their forties onwards (P) / it is thus a good idea (Q) / and continue to exercise early enough (R) / for senior citizens to start (S)
(a) P R S Q
(b) Q R S P
(c) O S R P
(d) P Q R S

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Answer – (C)

19. scientists have determined (P) / injury in animals and humans (Q) / that is linked to the severity of spinal cord (R) / a gene signature (S)
(a) P S R O
(b) Q R P S
(c) Q S P R
(d) P Q R S

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Answer – (A)

20. like a muscle and repeating the process (P) / and stable reading circuit (Q) / helps the child build a strong (R) / the brain works (S)
(a) Q S R P
(b) S P R Q
(c) Q S P R
(d) R O P S

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Answer – (B)

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