UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 – Paper 1 (General Studies) Answer Key

UPSC (Union Public Service Commission) Conduct the UPSC (IAS/IFS) Pre Exam – 2020. This Paper held on 04 October 2020. UPSC General Studies (Paper – I) Full Paper With Answer Key available Here .

Exam – UPSC (IAS/IFS) Pre 2020
Subject – General Studies (GS) Paper – I
Date of Exam – 04- October – 2020
BOOKLET SERIES – B

UPSC IAS/IFS Pre Exam 2020
Paper I (General Studies)
(Answer Key) 

Click Here Read This Paper (UPSC Pre Exam 2020 Paper – I) in Hindi Language 

1. With reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements :
1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body.
2. I They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of human body.
3. They can be used in biochemical sensors.
4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

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Answer – (D)
Explanation – All Statements are correct: Single-walled carbon nanotubes covalently functionalized with polytyrosine: a new material for the development of NADH-based biosensors.

2. Consider the following activities :
1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field.
2. Inspecting the craters of I active volcanoes
3. Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis.
At the present level of technology, which of the above activities can be successfully carried out by using drones ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – (D)
Explanation – All Statements are correct: It is used in spraying pasticides and inspecting volcanoes also. The SnotBot is in fact a drone adapted for sampling whale breath that films while capturing the precious mucus in four Petri dishes or on sponges. To date, analyses have been used to identify DNA, ketones, hormones (notably to determine whether the animal is pregnant) and microbiomes contained in the whale exhalations.

3. “The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometers long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to
(a) Voyager-2
(b) New Horizons
(c) LISA Pathfinder
(d) Evolved LISA

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Answer – (C)
Explanation – The interferometer was a model of one arm of the final LISA interferometer, but reduced from millions of kilometers long to 40 cm. The reduction did not change the accuracy of the relative position measurement, nor did it affect the various technical disturbances produced by the spacecraft surrounding the experiment, whose measurement was the main goal of LISA Pathfinder. The sensitivity to gravitational waves, however, is proportional to the arm length, and this is reduced several billion-fold compared to the planned LISA experiment.

4. Consider the following statements :
1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs sperms of a prospective parent.
2. A person’s genome-can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage.
3. Human induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – (D)
Explanation – Generation of pig induced pluripotent stem cells using an extended pluripotent stem cell culture system. Pigs have emerged as one of the most popular large animal models in biomedical research, which in many cases is considered as a superior choice over rodent models. In addition, transplantation studies using pig pluripotent stem (PS) cell derivatives may serve as a testbed for safety and efficacy prior to human trials. Recently, it has been shown that mouse and human PS cells cultured in LCDM (recombinant human LIF, CHIR 99021, (S)-(+)-dimethindene maleate, minocycline hydrochloride) medium exhibited extended developmental potential (designated as extended pluripotent stem cells, or EPS cells), which could generate both embryonic and extraembryonic tissues in chimeric mouse conceptus.

5. What is the importance bf using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India ?
1. These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis.
2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced.
3. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – (B)
Explanation
Statement 3 is not correct, each vaccine has some mild side effects , so 3rd option can be eliminated.
Statement 2 is correct Pneumococcal disease is caused by bacteria thus by using this vaccine dependence on antibiotics could be reduced
Statement 1 is correct: The pneumococcal conjugate vaccine is 97% effective in preventing bacteremia and meningitis . It can also help prevent ear infections and pneumonia.

6. In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of
(a) Digital security infrastructure
(b) Food security infrastructure
(c) Health care and education infrastructure
(d) Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure

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Answer – (A)
Explanation – A public key infrastructure is a set of roles, policies, hardware, software and procedures needed to create, manage, distribute, use, store and revoke digital certificates and manage public-key encryption.

7. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the general difference between plant and animal cells ?
1. Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst animal cells do not.
2. Plant cells do not have plasma membrane unlike animal cells which do.
3. Mature plant cell has one large vacuole whilst animal cell has many small vacuoles.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – (C)
Explanation
A plant cell wall is arranged in layers and contains cellulose microfibrils, hemicellulose, pectin, lignin, and soluble protein. Animal cells are devoid of cell wall and do not contain cellulose. In bacterial and plant cells, a cell wall is attached to the plasma membrane on its outside surface. Animal vacuoles are smaller than their plant counterparts but also usually greater in number.

8. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution ?
1. Automobile exhaust
2. Tobacco smoke
3. Wood burning
4. Using varnished wooden furniture
5. Using products made of polyurethane
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

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Answer – (D)
Explanation

  • Exposure can occur occupationally and domestically as a result of the ubiquitous use of benzene-containing petroleum products, including motor fuels and solvents. Active and passive exposure to tobacco smoke is also a significant source of exposure.
  • Some industries use benzene to make other chemicals that are used to make plastics, resins, and nylon and synthetic fibers. Benzene is also used to make some types of lubricants, rubbers, dyes, detergents, drugs, and pesticides.
  • Human exposure to benzene has been associated with a range of acute and long-term adverse health effects and diseases, including cancer and aplastic anaemia.
  • Benzene is highly volatile, and exposure occurs mostly through inhalation.1–3 Public health actions are needed to reduce the exposure of both workers and the general population to benzene.

9. If another global financial crisis happens in the near future, which of the following actions/policies are most likely to give some immunity to India ?
1. Not depending on short-term foreign borrowings
2. Opening up to more foreign banks
3. Maintaining full capital account convertibility
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – (B)
Explanation
Option 1 is correct: Not depending on short term foreign borrowings and focusing on long term plans will give immunity to the economy.
Option 2 is correct: The presence of foreign banks lowers overhead costs and profits of domestic banks. Foreign banks also increase overall economic growth by raising the efficiency of domestic banks.
Option 3 is incorrect: India’s rupee is a partially convertible currency—rupees can be exchanged at market rates in certain cases, but approval is required for larger amounts. Making the rupee a fully convertible currency would mean increased liquidity in financial markets, improved employment and business opportunities, and easy access to capital. Some of the disadvantages include higher volatility, an increased burden of foreign debt, and an effect on the balance of trade and exports.

10. If you withdraw ₹ 1,00,000 in cash from your Demand Deposit Account at your bank, the immediate effect on aggregate money supply in the economy will be
(a) to reduce it by ₹ 1,00,000
(b) to increase it by ₹ 1,00,000
(c) to increase it by more than ₹ 1,00,000
(d) to leave it unchanged

11. With reference to the cultural history of India, which one of the following, is the correct description of the term ‘paramitas’?
(a) The earliest Dharmashastra texts written in aphoristic (sutra) style
(b) Philosophical schools that did not accept the authority of Vedas
(c) Perfections whose attainment led to the Bodhisattva path
(d) Powerful merchant guilds of early medieval South India X

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Answer – (C)
Explanation
Perfections whose attainment led to bodhisattva path Pāramitā (Sanskrit, Pali) or pāramī (Pāli), is a Buddhist term often translated as “perfection”. It is described in Buddhist commentaries as noble character qualities generally associated with enlightened beings

12. In the context of Indian history, the Rakhmabai case of 1884 revolved around
1. women’s right to gain education
2. age of consent
3. restitution of conjugal rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – (D)
Explanation
In 1885, after 12 years of marriage, Bhikaji sought “restitution of conjugal rights”, where the hearing and judgement was presided by Justice Robert Hill Pinhey. Rukhmabai had refused to live with the man she was married to as a child, as she had no say in the marriage. The British precedents could not be implied in this case, as British law was meant to be applied in the case of consenting adults. Justice Pinhey found this limitation in British law and found no previous cases of such nature in Hindu law. Hence his judgement on the case stated that Rukhmabai had been wed as an innocent child, had no say in the matter and now couldn’t be forced.
The case generated a great deal of debate both within India and England. the publicity and debate generated by this case helped influence the enactment of the “Age of Consent Act” in 1891, which changed the age of consent from 10 to 12 years across British India.
“The Rukhmabai Defence Committee” to help gather fund towards supporting her cause of continuing education. In 1889, Rukhmabai set sail to study medicine in England

13. Indigo cultivation in India declined by the h 1900 beginning of the 20th century because of
(a) peasant resistance to the oppressive conduct of planters
(b) its unprofitability in the world market because of new inventions
(c) national leaders opposition to the cultivation of indigo
(d) Government control over the planters

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Answer – (B)
Explanation
The indigo production collapsed in Bengal, after the revolt.. Discovery of synthetic dyes in the late nineteenth century severely affected the business.

14. Wellesley established the Fort William College at Calcutta because
(a) he was asked by the Board of Directors at London to do so
(b) he wanted to revive interest in oriental learning in India
(c) he wanted to provide William Carey and his associates with employment
(d) he wanted to train (British civilians for administrative purpose in India

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Answer – (D)
Explanation
The initial attempt to train the Civil Servants locally was done by Lord Wellesley. Within the campus of the Fort William, he founded Fort Williams College on 10 July 1800. The idea was to teach the Britishers to understand the Oriental culture, tradition, law and administration to better coordinate in the “governance”.

15. With reference to the history of India, “Ulgulan” or the Great Tumult is the description of which of the following events ?
(a) The Revolt of 1857
(b) The Mappila Rebellion of 1921
(c) The Indigo Revolt of 1859 – 60
(d) Birsa Munda’s Revolt of 1899 – 1900

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Answer – (D)
Explanation
Born in 1875 in the Munda tribe. He is often referred to as ‘Dharti Abba’ or the Earth Father. He led the rebellion that came to be known as Ulgulan (revolt) or the Munda rebellion against the British government-imposed feudal state system.

16. With reference to the scholars/litterateurs of ancient India, consider the following statements :
1. Panini is associated with Pushyamitra Shunga.
2. Amarasimha is associated with Harshavardhana.
3. Kalidasa is associated with Chandra Gupta – II.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – (C)
Explanation
1 is incorrect – Pushyamitra’s Guru, Patanajali, one of the greatest geniuses in Indian history was a student of another very famous genius Panini, has written Mahabhashya, a commentary on Panini’s grammar and a very celebrated work on Sanskrit literary.
2 is incorrect – Amarasimha was a Sanskrit grammarian and poet from ancient India, of whose personal history hardly anything is known. He is said to have been “one of the nine gems that adorned the throne of Vikramaditya,” and according to the evidence of Xuanzang, this is the Chandragupta Vikramaditya who flourished about CE 375.
3 is correct – Chandragupta II (also known as Chandragupta Vikramaditya) was one of the most powerful emperors of the Gupta Empire in India. His rule spanned c. 380 – c. 415 CE during which the Gupta Empire reached its peak. Kālidāsa was a Classical Sanskrit writer, widely regarded as the greatest poet and dramatist in the Sanskrit language of India. His plays and poetry are primarily based on the Vedas, the Mahabharata and the Puranas.

17. In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, “Pronuclear Transfer” is used for
(a) fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor sperm.
(b) genetic modification of sperm producing cells.
(c) development of stem cells into functional embryos
(d) prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring

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Answer – (D)
Explanation
Pronuclear transfer involves the transfer of pronuclei from one zygote to another. This technique first requires fertilisation of healthy donated egg/s (provided by the mitochondrial donor) with the intending male parent sperm. Simultaneously, the intending mother’s affected oocytes are fertilised with the intending father’s sperm. Both sets of fertilised oocytes are allowed to develop to the early zygote stage where the pronuclei are visible.
Pronuclear transfer has the potential to ‘treat’ human mtDNA disease at a genetic level. D is correct. Mutations in mtDNA are a cause of mitochondrial disease, a heterogeneous group of diseases that can lead to premature death, sometimes in infancy or childhood. Most mitochondrial diseases lack specific treatments, and women who carry the causative mutations are at high risk of transmitting the diseases to their offspring. Risk of transmission is greatest for women with high heteroplasmy—women whose total mtDNA content in affected cells or tissues is made up of between 60 and 90 percent mutated mtDNA.
Both maternal spindle transfer and pronuclear transfer attempt to minimize heteroplasmy by replacing the mother’s mitochondria with healthy donor mitochondria.

18. With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following ?
1. Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units
2. Create meaningful short stories and songs
3. Disease diagnosis
4. Text-to-Speech Conversion
5. Wireless transmission of electrical energy.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

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Answer – (C)
Explanation
1 is incorrect – The increasing use of artificial intelligence is going to increase Data centers which are on course to consume 15% extra of the world’s electricity.
2 and 4 are correct – Even the most advanced chatbots can’t hold a decent conversation, but AI systems are definitely getting better at generating the written word. A new web app provides ample proof, letting anyone enter a text prompt to which AI software will automatically respond.
3 is correct – AI-based software can tell whether a patient has a certain disease even before evident symptoms appear. In their latest research, Google proves that a neural network can be trained to detect signs of lung cancer earlier and faster than trained radiologists.
5 is correct – To put it simply, wireless electricity is the conduction of electrical energy without wires. The idea was proposed way back in 1891 by Nikola Tesla, who suggested it could be an alternative to power distribution through transmission lines. AI is being used in research for this technology.

19. With reference to Visible Light Communication (VLC) technology, which of the following statements are correct?
1. VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 to 780nm.
2. VLC is known as long-range optical wireless communication.
3. VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth.
4. VLC has no electromagnetic interference.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

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Answer – (C)
Explanation
1 is correct – Visible light communication (VLC) is a data communications variant which uses visible light between 400 and 800 THz (780–375 nm). VLC is a subset of optical wireless communications technologies.
2 is incorrect – Systems such as RONJA can transmit at full Ethernet speed (10 Mbit/s) over distances of 1–2 kilometres (0.6–1.2 mi). It is not long range.
3 is correct – It carries more data than WiFi and bluetooth.
4 is correct – VLC has the characteristic, to resist electromagnetic interference.

20. With reference to “Blockchain Technology”, consider the following statements :
1. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but, which no single user controls.
2. The structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only.
3. Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody’s permission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

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Answer – (D)
Explanation
Blockchain technology is a structure that stores transactional records, also known as the block, of the public in several databases, known as the “chain,” in a network connected through peer-to-peer nodes. Typically, this storage is referred to as a ‘digital ledger.’
1 is correct  – The fascinating angle is that anybody can see the data, but they can’t corrupt it.
2 is incorrect  – Blockchain can be used for many purposes like Secure sharing of medical data, Music royalties tracking.
3 is correct  – Applications that depend on basic features of the blockchain can thus be developed without asking anybody for permission or paying anyone.

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