UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2019 - Paper 1 (General Studies)
UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2019 - Paper 1 (General Studies)

UPSC Prelims Answer Key With Explanation 2019 – Paper 1 (General Studies)

41. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:
1. In Augmented Reality (AR) , a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 4 only

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Answer –  (B)

Explanation

  • Augmented reality (AR) is an interactive experience of a real-world environment where the objects that reside in the real-world are enhanced by computer-generated perceptual information, sometimes across multiple sensory modalities, including visual, auditory, haptic, somatosensory and olfactory. The overlaid sensory information can be constructive (i.e. additive to the natural environment), or destructive (i.e. masking of the natural environment). This experience is seamlessly interwoven with the physical world such that it is perceived as an immersive aspect of the real environment.In this way, augmented reality alters one’s ongoing perception of a real-world environment
  • Virtual reality completely replaces the user’s real-world environment with a simulated one.
  • https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Augmented_reality &
  • https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_reality

42. The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to
(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaur
(b) an early human species
(c) a cave system found in North-East India.
(d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent

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Answer –  (B)

Explanation

  • Scientists have uncovered the most complete remains yet from the mysterious ancient-hominin group known as the Denisovans. The jawbone, discovered high on the Tibetan Plateau and dated to more than 160,000 years ago, is also the first Denisovan specimen found outside the Siberian cave in which the hominin was uncovered a decade ago confirming suspicions that Denisovans were more widespread than the fossil record currently suggests.
  • The research marks the first time an ancient human has been identified solely through the analysis of proteins. With no usable DNA, scientists examined proteins in the specimen’s teeth, raising hopes that more fossils could be identified even when DNA is not preserved.
  • Thus, Option B is Correct.

43. With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Functiona chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
(b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in Iaboratories.
(c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
(d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.

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Answer –  (A)

Explanation

Option (a)
Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species is incorrect as it is functional DNA which can be created through recombinant DNA technology by joining DNA taken from different species.

https://www.nature.com/scitable/topicpage/recombinant-dna-technology-and-transgenic-animals

Option (b)
Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.In 2007 Scientistsin Japan reported development of the world’s first DNA molecule made almost entirely of artificial parts. The finding opened up huge possibilities in gene therapy.
https://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2008/07/080707091915.htm

Option (c)
A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory. It is exactly what is done through Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technology.PCR mimics what happens in cells when DNA is copied (replicated) prior to cell division, but it is carried out in controlled conditions in a laboratory. The machine that is used is simply called a PCR machine or a thermocycler.

https://www.sciencelearn.org.nz/resources/2347-what-is-pcr

Option (d)
Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes Plants cells are totipotent and a single cell has the potential to divide through mitosis in sterile conditions in a culture petridish to grow into a mature plant .Similarly animal cells can undergo mitotic cell division upto multicelled stages in a cultured petridishexamples: Somatic cell nuclear transfer technology(reproductive cloning) and Zygote created through Invitro fertilization.

44. Consider the following statements:
A digital signature is
1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet.
3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer –  (D)

Explanation

  • A digital signature is a mathematical scheme for verifying the authenticity of digital messages or documents. A valid digital signature, where the prerequisites are satisfied, gives a recipient very strong reason to believe that the message was created by a known sender (authentication), and that the message was not altered in transit (integrity).
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digital_signature

45. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?
1. Location identification of a person
2. Sleep monitoring of a person
3. Assisting the hearing impaired person
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer –  (D)

Explanation

  • Wearable technology, wearables, fashion technology, tech togs, or fashion electronics are smart electronic
    devices (electronic device with micro-controllers) that can be incorporated into clothing or worn on the body
    as implants or accessories.
  • Wearable devices such as activity trackers are an example of the Internet of Things, since “things” such as electronics, software, sensors, and connectivity are effectors that enable objects to exchange data (including data quality) through the internet with a manufacturer, operator, and/or other connected devices, without requiring human intervention.
  • Wearable technology has a variety of applications which grows as the field itself expands. It appears prominently in consumer electronics with the popularization of the smartwatch and activity tracker. Apart from commercial uses, wearable technology is being incorporated into navigation systems, advanced textiles, and healthcare.
  • https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wearable_technology

46. ‘RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?
1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies
2. It can be used in developing therapies for-the treatment of cancer.
3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4 only

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Answer –  (A)

Explanation

  • RNA interference (RNAi) is a biological process in which RNA molecules inhibit gene expression or translation, by neutralizing targeted mRNA molecules. RNAi is also known as post-transcriptional gene silencing (PTGS), and quelling.
  • RNA interference (RNAi) is a promising gene regulatory approach in functional genomics that has significant impact on crop improvement. RNAi has also been exploited in plants for resistance against pathogens, insect/pest, nematodes, and virus that cause significant economic losses. This novel approach opens new avenues for crop improvement by developing disease resistant, abiotic or biotic stress tolerant, and high yielding elite varieties.
  • RNA interference (RNAi) is a mechanism for gene silencing. Such mechanism possesses an unusual ability in targeting cancer-related genes.
  • https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC309050/

47. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
(a) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detecte
(b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.
(c) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.
(d) It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’.

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Answer –  (B)

Explanation

  • Billions of light years away, two black holes have collided to create a larger one – the biggest black hole merger yet detected. It has a mass more than 80 times that of the sun.The resulting energy injected into the fabric of spacetime was also record breaking, with five sun’s worth of mass released in the form gravitational waves as the two holes spiralled in towards each other.Such titanic amounts of energy meant that the signal was still detectable by the time it reached gravitational wave detectors on Earth. It produced a recordbreaking result – the most distant collision detected so far, nine billion light years away.“This event also had black holes spinning the fastest of all mergers observed so far,” says the Australian National University’s Susan Scott, a chief investigator with the Centre of Excellence for Gravitational Wave Discovery (OzGrav). “It is also by far the most distant merger observed.”
    https://cosmosmagazine.com/space/gravitational-waves-biggest-black-hole-merger-ever-detected-revealed

48. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
1. Genetic predisposition of some people
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

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Answer –  (B)

Explanation

  • The developing world where antibiotics can be bought for human or animal use without a prescription, the emergence and spread of resistance among bacteriahas been made worse. Thus in countries without standard treatment guidelines, antibiotics are often over-prescribed by health workers and veterinarians and over-used by the public.
  • Without urgent action, the world is heading for a post-antibiotic era, in which common infections and minor injuries will once again lead to deaths like in the pre-antibiotic era.
  • Genetic predisposition of people can make people more vulnerable to infections but it has nothing to do with increase in resistance to antibiotics in the micro-organisms.
  • Multiple chronic diseases like diabetes,hypertension,cancer can increase the sufferers vulnerability to infections but it can not be the cause of multi-drug resistance.
    https://www.who.int/news-room/fact-sheets/detail/antibiotic-resistance
     

49. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?
(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
(b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients
(c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant
(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops

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Answer –  (A)

Explanation
CRISPR Cas 9 is the latest genome editing tool with huge potential in gene therapy

  • The CRISPR-Cas9 system consists of two key molecules that introduce a change (mutation?) into the DNA.
    These are:
  • an enzyme? called Cas9. This acts as a pair of ‘molecular scissors’ that can cut the two strands of DNA at a specific location in the genome so that bits of DNA can then be added or removed.
  • a piece of RNA? called guide RNA (gRNA). This consists of a small piece of pre-designed RNA sequence (about 20 bases long) located within a longer RNA scaffold. The scaffold part binds to DNA and the pre-designed sequence ‘guides’ Cas9 to the right part of the genome. This makes sure that the Cas9 enzyme cuts at the right point in the genome.
    https://www.yourgenome.org/facts/what-is-crispr-cas9

50. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
(c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis Band C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.

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Answer –  (B)

Explanation

  • Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C and HIV are transmitted in a similar fashion through contaminated syringes, infectedblood, tranfusions, unprotected sexual intercourse.
  • The number of people affected by Hepatitis B and C are much more than HIV infected people.
  • People infected by Hepatitis B and C may remain symptom less for many years or with mild symptoms but the infection may manifest as chronic liver illness followed by Cirrhosis of liver and hepatic carcinoma.
  • People can bevery effectively protected against Hepatitis B through vaccination. India is the largest producer of recombinant hepatitis B vaccine.There is no effective Hepatitis c vaccine till date.Efforts to develop a hepatitis C vaccine started more than 25 years ago, when the hepatitis C virus was identified. Since then, researchers have studied more than 20 potential vaccines in animals. A few of these vaccines, developed mainly in the past decade, have undergone limited testing in people.
  • https://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-conditions/hepatitis-c/expert-answers/hepatitis-c-vaccine/faq-20110002

51. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?
1. J agirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer –  (D)

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: High courts can strike down central laws also. For example Madras high court while disposing of a Writ petition seeking a declaration to the effect that the Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) (Six Months Training) Rules, 2014 declared it beyond the scope of the Pre-conceptional and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994, and inconsistent with Medical Council of India Act, 1956 and Regulations.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) held that Constitutional amendment can be challenged on the ground that it violates a fundamental right that forms a part of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution and hence, can be declared as void. This was further reaffirmed in Golak Nath v.
    State of Punjab and Minerva Mill’s case. Therefore as it stands the constitutional amendment comes under a law for judicial review if it violates any fundamental rights and Basic structure of our constitution.
  • Thus, Option D is correct.

52. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The ceiling “laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
(b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
(c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.

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Answer –  (B)
Explanation

The land reform legislations passed by Indian Government during 1950s were guided by following main objectives:

  • Abolition of intermediaries.
  • Tenancy reforms to regulate fair rent and provide security to tenure.
  • Ceilings on holdings and distribution of surplus land among landless.
  • Consolidation of holdings and prevention of their further fragmentation and
  • Development of cooperative farming.

With reference to land reforms in independent India:

  • Land Ceiling laws were applied to family holdings as well as individual holdings.
  • The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
  • Land reforms were not connected to cultivation of cash crops in any way directly as a predominant form
    of cultivation.
  • Land reforms permitted many exemptions to the ceiling limits such as for GARDEN LANDS, FOREST LAND AND BARREN LAND ETC.
  • So statement ‘B’ is correct.

53. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) World Bank

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Answer –  (C)
Explanation

  • The Global Competitiveness Report (GCR) is a yearly report published by the World Economic Forum (WEF).
  • WEF’s GCR assesses competitiveness of countries to provide insight into drivers of their productivity and prosperity. GCR scores are calculated on basis of 12 categories called ‘pillars of competitiveness which covers both business and social indicators.
  • It includes pillars such as institutions, infrastructure, health and primary education, labour market efficiency, financial market development, technological readiness and market size.
  • Thus, Option C is Correct.

54. Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’:
1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer –  (A)
Explanation

  • Charter Act of 1813 expressly asserted the Crown’s sovereignty over British India. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
  • The revenues of India came under the control of British Parliament clearly in 1858. This process started with Pits’ India act 1784.

55. With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:
1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer –  (C)
Explanation

  • It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries because foreign goods were boycotted. National Council of Education (or NCE) was an organisation founded by Indian nationalists in Bengal in 1906 to promote science and technology as part of Swadeshi industrialisation movement. It established the Bengal National College and Bengal Institute which would later merge to form Jadavpur University.

56. Consider the following pairs:
Movement/Organization                                 Leader
1. All India Anti-Untouchability League        –   Mahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan Sabha                                    –    Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3. Self-Respect Movement                                –  V. Ramaswami Naicker
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer –  (D)
Explanation
1. All India Anti-Untouchability League was established by Mahatma Gandhi in 1932.
2. All India Kisan Sabhawas established by Swami Sahajanand Saraswati in 1936.
3. Self-Respect Movement started by E. V. Ramaswami Naicker in 1925.

57. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
(a) Chanhudaro
(b) Kot Diji
(c) Sohgaura
(d) Desalpur

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Answer –  (C)
Explanation

  • Chanhudaro (located in Sind), Kot Diji (located in Sind), and Desalpur (located in Gujarat) are Harappan sites.
  • Sohgaura (located in U.P.) is a site of Mauryan Period. A copper plate inscription belonging to the reign of Chandragupta Maurya was found at this place.

58. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
(a) Kanganahalli
(b) Sanchi I
(c) Shahbazgarhi
(d) Sohgaura

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Answer –  (A)
Explanation

  • Kanaganahalli is a Buddhist site located in Gulbarga District in Karnataka, India.
  • During the excavations (2000 to 2002) a stone sculptured slab bearing the name Ranyo Ashoka was found here.
  • It is first such inscribed portrait of Ashoka. It was found at Kanaganahalliwas unearthed from the ruined Buddhist stupa.

59. Consider the following:
1. Deification of the Buddha
2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas
3. Image worship and rituals
Which of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer –  (D)
Explanation

  • Mahayana Buddhism started deification or worship of Buddha. Mahayana monks were known as Bodhisattvas. They followed the path of Bodhisattvas.
  • Image worship and rituals were introduced by Mahayanist in Buddhism.

60. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
(c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
(d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.

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Answer –  (A)
Explanation

  • Forced labour (Vishti) became more common during Gupta period. It was considered a source of income for the state. It was kind of tax paid by people to state.

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