UPSC Prelims Answer Key With Explanation 2019 – Paper 1 (General Studies)

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: High courts can strike down central laws also. For example Madras high court while disposing of a Writ petition seeking a declaration to the effect that the Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) (Six Months Training) Rules, 2014 declared it beyond the scope of the Pre-conceptional and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994, and inconsistent with Medical Council of India Act, 1956 and Regulations.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) held that Constitutional amendment can be challenged on the ground that it violates a fundamental right that forms a part of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution and hence, can be declared as void. This was further reaffirmed in Golak Nath v. State of Punjab and Minerva Mill’s case. Therefore as it stands the constitutional amendment comes under a law for judicial review if it violates any fundamental rights and Basic structure of our constitution.
Thus, Option D is correct.

Explanation

• One popular macroeconomic analysis metric to compare economic productivity and standards of living between countries is purchasing power parity (PPP). PPP is an economic theory that compares different countries’ currencies through a “basket of goods” approach.
• In terms of PPP dollars, India is the third largest economy in the world.
  

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct : Major Kharif crops are rice, maize, cotton of which rice cultivable area is around 435 Million Hectare ,Cotton Is around 120 Million hectare and maize is even lesser than this.

Statement 2 is incorrect :

Statement 3 is Correct: Cotton cultivation is around 120 Million hectare and sugarcane is around 50 million hectare.

Statement 4 is Incorrect : Sugarcane cultivation has not declined Steadily but has fluctuated in last 5 years .
So the correct option is A

Explanation

Vegetable oil has the Maximum import
Hence option D is correct, Vegetable oils.

• The Preamble of the constitution of India professes to secure the liberty of belief, thought, expression, faith, and worship which are essential to the development of the individuals and the nation. Since we have adopted a positive definition of Liberty (Liberty is clubbed with belief, thought, expression, faith and worship) our Preamble transcended beyond negative and narrow interpretation of US constitution (Restrains state and protection from tyranny).
• Thus, Option D is correct.
  

• Following an expansionary monetary policy will lead to the money supply in an economy. This in turn will lead to more outflow of dollars and thus, the rupee arrest cannot be stopped.
• All the other options will bring more dollars into India and thus can arrest the slide of Indian rupee.
  

• The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), agreed upon by the European Parliament and Council in April 2016,will replace the Data Protection Directive in Spring 2018 as the primary law regulating how companiesprotect EU citizens’ personal data. Companies that are already in compliance with the Directive must ensure that they are also compliant with the new requirements of the GDPR before it becomes effective on May 25, 2018. Companies that fail to achieve GDPR compliance before the deadline will be subject to stiff penalties and fines.
• Thus, Option C is Correct.
  

• The Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field identified jointly by Russia and India was signed by Director General of the State Atomic Energy Corporation RosatomAlexey Likhachev and the Secretary of Department of Atomic Energy and Chairman of Atomic Energy Commission Kamlesh Vyas.
• The two countries intent to develop a project of six nuclear power units of Russian design at a new site in India, further enhance cooperation in the third countries and bring in new perspective nuclear technologies together with joint construction of nuclear power plants.
• Thus Option B is Correct.
  

• The Money Multiplier refers to how an initial deposit can lead to a bigger final increase in the total money supply.
• Formula for money multiplier = 1/ Reserve Ratio
• Thus, increase in reserve ratios like Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio decreases the money multiplier.
• On the other hand, the increase in population does not necessarily leads to the increase in money multiplier.
• Increase in banking habit of the population will lead to more deposits in the banking system and thus, banks have more money to lend out money which leads to the increase in money multiplier.
  

• Statement 1 is correct: 5 tribal groups have been categorized by Ministry of Home Affairs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG)s. PVTGs reside in 18 States and UT of A&N Islands.
• Statement 2 is correct: The criteria followed for determination of PVTGs are as under:
  1. A pre-agriculture level of technology;
  2. A stagnant or declining population;
  3. Extremely low literacy; and
  4. A subsistence level of economy.
• Statement 3 is incorrect : 75 tribal groups have been categorized by Ministry of Home Affairs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG)s for them . Among the 75 listed PVTG’s the highest number are found in Odisha (13), followed by Andhra Pradesh (12), Bihar including Jharkhand (9) Madhya Pradesh including Chhattisgarh (7) Tamil Nadu (6) Kerala and Gujarat having five groups each. The remaining PVTGs live in West Bengal (3) Maharashtra (3), two each in Karnataka and Uttarakhand and one each in Rajasthan, Tripura and Manipur. All the four tribal groups in Andaman, and one in Nicobar Islands, are recognised as PVTGs. The Saharia people of Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan are the largest among the PVTGs with population more than 4 lakhs. Smallest population size among the PVTGs are the Sentinelese (as per the last contact effort on March 9, 2005, groups of 32 and 13 persons were sighted at different places)
• Statement 4 is correct : Kondareddis in AP and irulas in Tamil nadu are classified as PVTG.
• Thus, Option C is correct
  

• Enforcement of decrees and orders of Supreme Court: The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it, and any decree so passed or orders so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, in such manner as the President may by order prescribe.
  
• Subject to the provisions of any law made in this behalf by Parliament, the Supreme Court shall, as respects the whole of the territory of India, have all and every power to make any order for the purpose of securing the attendance of any person, the discovery or production of any documents, or the investigation or punishment of any contempt of itself.
• Thus, Option B is correct
  

• Statement 1 is correct: The Governor enjoys vast and formidable legislative powers under the Constitution. He is an integral part of the State Legislature. The main legislative powers of the Governor may be enumerated as follows:
  1. The Constitution confers upon the Governor the power to nominate one member to the Lower House and some members to the Upper House of the State. He can nominate one member from the Anglo-Indian community to the State Legislative Assembly, if in his opinion this community is not adequately represented in that House. In a State with a Legislative Council, the Governor nominates one-sixth of the total number of its members.
  2. The Governor can summon the State Legislature, prorogue either House or dissolve the Legislative Assembly.
  3. The Constitution gives the Governor the right to address the House or Houses of the state Legislature separately or jointly. At the beginning of each new session and immediately after a general election to the Assembly, he has to deliver an address to the Legislature in which he lays down the policy of his Government for ensuing year Article 175.
  4. The Governor can also send messages to any House of the State Legislature. The Constitution lay down that a House to which any message is so sent shall consider any matter required by the message to be taken into consideration.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 208.
  Rules of procedure—
  (1) A House of the Legislature of a State may make rules for regulating, subject to the provisions of this Constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business.
  (2) Until rules are made under clause (1), the rules of procedure and standing orders in force immediately before the commencement of this Constitution with respect to the Legislature for the corresponding Province shall have effect in relation to the Legislature of the State subject to such modifications and adaptations as may be made therein by the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly, or the Chairman of the Legislative Council, as the case may be.
  (3) In a State having a Legislative Council the Governor, after consultation with the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly and the Chairman of the Legislative Council, may make rules as to the procedure with respect to communications between the two Houses.
• Thus, Option A is correct
  

• Statement 1 is incorrect– Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air, comes under the aegis of United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime(UNTOC).
• Statement 2 is correct- The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC), which entered into force in December 2005, is the ever-first binding global anti-corruption instrument. It obliges the States to prevent and criminalize different corrupt practices, promote international cooperation, cooperate for the recovery of stolen assets and enhance technical assistance and information exchange.
  
• Statement 3 is incorrect- Ahighlight of the United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC)is the inclusion of a specific chapter on asset recovery, aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners, including countries from which they had been taken illicitly.
  
• Statement 4 is correct- The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its Member States to assist in the implementation of both the Conventions (UNCAC and UNTOC), which along with the UN Drug Conventions of 1961, 1971 and 1988 underpin all the operational work of UNODC.
  
• Thus Option C is Correct.
  

• Statement 1 is incorrect: After amending Section 2(7) of Indian Forest Act, 1927, bamboo is no longer a tree and felled bamboo too is not timber.Consequent to the amendment, felling or transportation of bamboos growing in non-forest areas will not require any permits. So any bamboo grown in private or homestead land by millions of farmers does not require a felling permission or transit permission from any state forest department.
  
• Statement 2 is Correct: As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 it recognises bambooas a Minor Forest Produce.
• Statement 3 is correct: The rights which are included in section 3(1) of the Scheduled Tribes and Other traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act of 2006 vests the “right of ownership, access to collect, use and dispose of minor forest produce” with scheduled tribes and traditional forest dwellers.
• Thus Option B is correct.
  

• The Supreme Court said that right to privacy and the protection of sexual orientation lie at the core of the fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 14, 15 and 21 of the Constitution. The old law violates Article 14 of the Constitution, which guarantees all people equality before the law; Article 15, which prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth; and Article 21, which guarantees protection of life and personal liberty.
• Thus, Option B is correct
  

• The government has notified fixed term employment for all sectors through an amendment to the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central Rules, 1946. Fixed-term employment for all sectors will make it easier for companies to hire-and-fire workers along with reducing the role of middlemen.
  
• As per the the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018, a “fixed term employment workman is a workman who has been engaged on the basis of a written contract of employment for a fixed period”. No employer of an industrial establishment shall convert the posts of the permanent workmen existing in his industrial establishment on the date of commencement of the amended rules.
• No workman employed on fixed term employment basis as a result of non-renewal of contract or employment or on its expiry shall be entitled to any notice or pay in lieu thereof, if his services are terminated. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman whether monthly rated, weekly rated or piece rated and probationers or badli workmen.