UPSC CSE (Preliminary) Exam 2024 Paper I (GS) - 16 June 2024 (Answer Key)

UPSC CSE (Preliminary) Exam 2024 Paper I (GS) – 16 June 2024 (Answer Key)

81. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Sakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:
1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only 

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Answer – (C)

Explanation – 

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The provisions of Nari Sakti Vandan Adhiniyam will come into effect from the time of official notification after delimitation.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The duration of the Act is mentions reservation to be for 15 years.
  • Statement 3 is correct: There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
  • The Nari Sakti Vandan Adhiniyam is a legislative initiative aimed at enhancing women’s representation in legislative bodies. It includes provisions for reservations within existing quotas to ensure inclusive participation.

82. Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct?
1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

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Answer – (D)

Explanation – 

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 is a joint military exercise between India and Sri Lanka, not Bangladesh.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The exercise commenced in Aundh, Pune.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this exercise.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.

83. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:
(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
(c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy. 

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Answer – (C)

Explanation – 

  • Option (a) is incorrect: A writ of prohibition is not issued to a government officer.
  • Option (b) is incorrect: A writ of prohibition is not issued to the Parliament or Legislative Assembly.
  • Option (c) is correct: A writ of prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to a lower court prohibiting the continuation of proceedings in a case that is beyond its jurisdiction.
  • Option (d) is incorrect: A writ of prohibition is not issued to the government.
  • A writ of prohibition is a judicial order restraining a lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction or from acting contrary to the rules of natural justice. It is a preventive measure to ensure legal proceedings remain within the bounds of the law.

84. Consider the following statements:
1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer – (B)

Explanation – 

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: It is the President of India who recognizes and declares any community as a Scheduled Tribe, based on the recommendations of the respective state governments.
  • Statement 2 is correct: A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in one state need not be so in another state.
  • The recognition of Scheduled Tribes is a process involving both state and central government recommendations. A community recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in one state may not be recognized as such in another state.

85. With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:
1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer – (B)

Explanation –

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Union Finance Minister presents the Annual Financial Statement, not on behalf of the Prime Minister but on their own behalf.
  • Statement 2 is correct: At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
  • The Union Budget process in India involves the presentation of the Annual Financial Statement by the Finance Minister. The President’s recommendation is necessary for the introduction of money bills and demands for grants in Parliament.

86. Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”?
(a) Bhupender Yadav
(b) Nalin Mehta
(c) Shashi Tharoor
(d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

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Answer – (D)

Explanation – The India Way and Why Bharat Matters? are the books written by S. Jaishankar.

87. Consider the following pairs:

Country Reason for being in the news
1. Argentina Worst economic crisis
2. Sudan War between the country’s regular army and paramilitary forces
3. Turkey Rescinded its membership of NATO

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs

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Answer – (B)

Explanation –

  • Pair 1 is correct. Argentina is facing its worst economic crises.
  • Pair 2 is correct. Sudan is in the midst of a Civil War due to battles between country’s army and paramilitary forces.
  • Pair 3 is incorrect. No country has been rescinded from NATO’s membership.
  • Argentina is facing its worst economic crisis, Sudan is in a civil war between the army and paramilitary forces, and no country has been rescinded from NATO membership.

88. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Summed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.
Statement-II: Summed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

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Answer – (A)

Explanation – 

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Suez Canal and the SUMED Pipeline are strategic routes for Persian Gulf crude oil, petroleum products, and liquefied natural gas (LNG) shipments to Europe and North America.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Located in Egypt, the Suez Canal connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea, and it is a critical chokepoint because of the large volumes of energy commodities that flow through it.
  • The Sumed Pipeline is an oil pipeline in Egypt, running from the Ain Sokhna terminal in the Gulf of Suez, the northernmost terminus of the Red Sea, to offshore Sidi Kerir port, Alexandria in the Mediterranean Sea.

89. Consider the following statements:
1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer – (C)

Explanation –

  • Statement 1 is correct. Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
  • Statement 2 is correct. No significant river or stream enters red sea.
  • The Red Sea is a sea inlet of the Indian Ocean, lying between Africa and Asia. Its connection to the ocean is in the south, through the Bab-el-Mandeb strait and the Gulf of Aden. To its north lie the Sinai Peninsula, the Gulf of Aqaba, and the Gulf of Suez.

90. According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?
(a) Locomotives using fossil fuels
(b) Ships using fossil fuels
(c) Extraction of metals from ores
(d) Power plants using fossil fuels

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Answer – (D)

Explanation –

  • Power plants using fossile fuels relase most Sulphur Dioxide.
  • The largest sources of SO2 emissions are from fossil fuel combustion at power plants andother industrial facilities.

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