JKPSC Pre Exam Paper I (GS) 15 October 2023 (Answer Key)

JKPSC Preliminary Exam Paper I (GS) 15 October 2023 (Answer Key)

21. With respect to Mughal paintings, consider the following statements.
1. Daswant and Basawan were two famous painters of Jahangir’s court.
2. Mughal paintings reached a climax under Jahangir
3. Aurangzeb’s lack of interest in paintings led to a dispersal of artists to different places.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only

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Answer – (B)

22. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Tughlaq architecture.’
1. The striking feature of the Tughlaq architecture was the sloping walls, called ‘batter’.
2. The ‘batter’ is extensively used by Firuz Tughlaq in his buildings.
3. Tughlaq generally used costly red sandstone in their buildings
Choose the correct answer:
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – (C)

23. Consider the following statements regarding Article 31 A:
1. It doesn’t immunise the state law from judicial review unless it has been reserved for the President’s consideration and has received his assent.
2. This article doesn’t provide the payment of compensation at market value when the state acquires the land held by a person for his personal cultivation.
The correct statement/s is/are:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer – (A)

24. Which of the following directive principles were added after the adoption of the Constitution?
1. To promote equal justice and provide free legal aid to the poor
2. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries
3. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife
The correct answer/s is/are:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – (C)

25. Consider the following sentences regarding the IX Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
1. The constitution assembly enacted Ninth Schedule in the original Constitution to ensure agrarian reform
2. To reduce the discrimination and denial of equal protection of laws guaranteed to citizens under Article 14 of the Constitution.
3. After the landmark judgement of the Supreme Court in 2007, the now well settled principle is that any law placed under Ninth Schedule is subject to Court scrutiny.
The correct answer/s is/are:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – (B)

26. Consider the following statements regarding Domicile.
1. The Domicile of a person means his permanent home and may include his birthplace.
2. Article 16(3) allows for making provisions in government appointments with respect to residence but not place of birth.
3. The Parliament can only prescribe residence within a state or union territory as a condition for certain employments or appointments in that state or union territory, local authority, or other authority within that state or union territory.
The correct answer/s is/are:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – (D)

27. Consider the following statements regarding Hindu Succession Act.
1. Hindu women’s right to be the coparcener (joint legal heir) and inherit ancestral property on terms equal to male heirs.
2. It applies to everyone who is not a Muslim, Christian, Parsi or Jew, Buddhist, Sikh and Jain by religion.
3. Kerala is the only state to have abolished the Hindu Joint Family System in 1975.
The correct answer/s is/are:

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1,2 and 3

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Answer – (B)

28. Consider the following sentences regarding the President’s Pardoning Power in the USA.
1. All Presidents shall have the power to grant Reprieves and Pardons for offenses against the United States, except in cases of impeachment.
2. The power applies to both federal crimes and state crimes.
3. Those pardoned by the President cannot be tried under the laws of individual states.
The correct answer/s is/are:
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – (A)

29. Consider the following statements regarding preventive detention law;
1. Preventive Detention involves the detainment (containment) of a person to keep him/her from committing future crimes and/or escaping future prosecution.
2. Article 22 (3) (b) of the Constitution allows for preventive Detention and restriction on personal liberty for state security and public order reasons.
3. Bengal Regulation III of 1818 and the Rowlatt Act of 1919 were enacted to empower the government to arrest anyone for preventive Detention.
The correct answer/s is/are:
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – (D)

30. Consider the following statements regarding Article 371-A;
It says that in some matters, the Acts of Parliament relating to the matters would not apply to the state unless the State Legislative Assembly decides to include laws that may interfere with customs, social practices etc. and the ownership of their land. It entrusts the Governor of the state with special responsibility for law and order in the state.
The state mentioned in the above statements is

(A) Nagaland
(B) Manipur
(C) Mizoram
(D) Meghalaya

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Answer – (A)

31. Consider the following regarding Legislative Council.
1. Its establishment is defined in Article 169 of the Constitution of India.
2. The strength of the Legislative Council should not exceed I/3rd of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly, but it should not be less than 40.
3. 1/6th of members are nominated by the Governor based on their special knowledge.
4. Legislative councils are subject to dissolution; one-third of their members retire every second year.
How many statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one statement
(B) Only two statements
(C) Only three statements
(D) All the statements

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Answer – (C)

32. Which of the following is considered as Tender Vote?
(A) This refers to a vote cast by another person on behalf of a visually challenged person
(B) This refers to a vote cast by a person even after another person has already voted.
(C) This refers to a vote cast by another person on behalf of Army personnel.
(D) This refers to a vote cast by a person whose name is not on the electoral roll.

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Answer – (B)

33. The disqualification on the ground of defection/does not apply to which of the following reason/s?
1. If a member goes out of his party due to the merger of the party with another party.
2. If a member, after being elected as the presiding officer of the House, voluntarily office.
The correct statement/s is/are:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer – (C)

34. Which of the following has the oldest Act of Freedom of the Press?
(A) Norway
(B) United Kingdom
(C) Sweden
(D) Germany

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Answer – (C)

35. Consider the following statements regarding Real Estate Appellate Tribunal (REAT)
1. The Chairperson is or has been a Judge of a High Court
2. Chairperson and members are eligible for reappointment.
3. The tribunal is bound by rules and procedures of the civil procedure code (CPC) and Indian Evidence Act.
The correct answer/s is/are:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – (A)

36. Consider the following statements regarding/GST Council:
1. A simple majority of the members present and voting shall take every decision of the Council.
2. The vote of the Central Government and state government shall weigh one-third of the total votes cast each.
The correct statement/s is/are:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer – (D)

37. Based on the Essential Commodities Act 1955, any action on imposing stock limit shall be based on price rise) and an order for regulating stock limit of any agricultural produce may be issued under this Act only if there is
1. A hundred percent increase in the retail price of horticultural produce.
2. Fifty percent increase in the retail price of non-perishable agricultural foodstuffs.
The correct statement/s is/are:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer – (C)

38. Consider the following regarding the “National eVidhan Application (NeVA)”
1. It will help the members to carry out their duties in the House efficiently in a Paperless manner.
2. NeVA will completely eliminate the process of sending out a notice.
3. Mobile app of NeVA has made information on the conduct of business in Legislatures accessible anytime, anywhere to everyone.
How many statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one statement correct
(B) Only two statements are correct
(C) All the statements are correct
(D) All the statements are incorrect

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Answer – (C)

39. Consider the following regarding the Flag Code of India, 2002 which was amended vide Order dated 30th December, 2021;
1. The Flag is displayed in the open or displayed on the House of a member of public, it may be flown day and night.
2. A member of a public, a private organization or an educational institution may hoist/display the National Flag on all days and occasions, ceremonial or otherwise.
3. No other flag or bunting should be placed higher than or even side by side with the National Flag.
How many statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one statement correct
(B) Only two statements are correct
(C) All the statements are correct
(D) All the statements are incorrect

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Answer – (C)

40. Consider the following statements regarding minority status:
1. Minority status of religious and linguistic communities is “State-dependent”.
2. Religious or linguistic community which is a minority in a particular State can institutions under Articles 29 and 30 of the Constitution.
The correct statement/s is/are:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer – (C)

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