UKPSC Upper Subordinate Services (Preliminary) Exam 2024
Paper – I (General Studies)
(Official Answer Key)

1. The shape of Atoll is:
(a) Sikkim and China
(b) Arunachal Pradesh and China
(c) Uttarakhand and China
(d) Himachal Pradesh and China

2. The McMahon line demarcates the boundary between which of the following options?
(a) Rectangular
(b) Rod-shaped
(c) Horse Shoe/Ring Shaped
(d) Triangular

3. The bright outer layer of the sun is known as:
(a) Photosphere
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Sunspots

4. Epeirogenic forces are result of:
(a) Horizontal earth movements
(b) Vertical earth movements
(c) Mass movements
(d) Displacement

5. Dry winds blowing from north-east and east to west of Sahara desert are known as:
(a) Bora
(b) Sirocco
(c) Harmattan
(d) Mistral

6. The landform of ‘Hanging Valley’ is associated with which of the following geomorphic process?
(a) Wind
(b) Glacier
(c) Sea Waves
(d) Running Water

7. Consider the following statements regarding the tropical dry deciduous forest in India :
(1) It is found in the regions, where rainfall is between 25 and 75 cm.
(2) They occur in an irregular wide strip running from the foot of the Himalayas.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) (1) only
(b) (2) only
(c) Both (1) and (2)
(d) Neither (1) nor (2)

8. Which one of the following Peninsular rivers has longest course length?
(a) Godavari
(b) Krishna
(c) Narmada
(d) Cauvery

9. Which of the following statements is not true, with respect to ‘Laterite soils’ in India?
(a) They are deficient in lime and nitrogen.
(b) They provide good building materials.
(c) They are affected by leaching process.
(d) They are moisture retentive with large clay factor.

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UKPSC RO/ARO Exam Paper 2023
(General Studies and General Aptitude Test)
(Official Answer Key)

Section – 1 (General Studies)

1. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is based on which of the following documents/laws?
(a) Nehru Report
(b) Objectives Resolution
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947

2. Who is the author of the book, “The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation”?
(a) Granville Austin
(b) Prabhu Chawla
(c) Susanne Rudolf
(d) M.P. Singh

3. Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the procedure of amendment of the Constitution?
(a) Article 280
(b) Article 352
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368

4. Which of the following Article provides for the Constitution of Finance Commission to review the financial position of Panchayats ?
(a) Article 243 A
(b) Article 243 B
(c) Article 243 D
(d) Article 243 I

5. The Right of Privacy is envisaged in which Article of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 32

6. Who of the following was the Constitutional advisor to the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) B.N. Rao
(d) J.L. Nehru

7. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the distribution of legislative powers between Centre and States ?
(a) 5th schedule
(b) 6th schedule
(c) 7th schedule
(d) 8th schedule

8. Which of the following country/group of countries got membership in the G-20 Conference, 2023 organised by India?
(a) Nepal
(b) Pakistan
(c) Bangladesh
(d) African Union

9. Which one of the following is not included in Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) ?
(a) Heath
(b) Education
(c) Living Standard
(d) Per Capita Income

10. Which of the following programme of Government of India is operative under ‘Jal-Jeevan Mission’?
(a) Namami Gange
(b) Swachhata Pakhwada
(c) Har Ghar Jal
(d) Water Treatment Plants

11. In Sustainable Development Goals 2030, which of the following is identified as a Goal-4 ?
(a) Education
(b) Health
(c) Hunger, Poverty and Nutrition
(d) Environment

12. ‘Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojna’ is related to :
(a) Rural Banks
(b) Small Business Units
(c) Medium Industries
(d) None of these

13. Tropic of Cancer does not pass through which of the following state??
(a) Chhattisgarh
(b) Tripura
(c) Mizoram
(d) Manipur

14. Bokaro Steel Plant was developed with the collaboration of which of the following?
(a) United States of America (U.S.A.)
(b) Germany
(c) Russia
(d) England

15. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
Railway Zone – Headquarters
(a) North-Eastern Railway – Gorakhpur
(b) Eastern Railway – Kolkata
(c) South-East Central Railway – Bilaspur
(d) South-Eastern Railway – Bhubaneshwar

16. The highest population Growth Rate decade in India was :
(a) 1951-61
(b) 1961-71
(c) 1971-81
(d) 1981-91

17. ‘Ahom’ tribe belongs to which state of India?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Jharkhand

18. Arrange the following rivers in order from West to East :
(A) Son
(B) Chambal
(C) Ken
(D) Betwa
(a) Betwa, Ken, Chambal, Son
(b) Chambal, Betwa, Ken, Son
(c) Son, Betwa, Chambal, Ken
(d) Ken, Son, Chambal, Betwa

19. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched ?
Minerals – Area
(a) Gold – Kolar
(b) Coal – Jharia
(c) Iron-ore – Guntur
(d) Diamond – Panna

20. According to Census-2011, which state of India has the highest percentages of Urban Population?
(a) Goa
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Mizoram

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UKPSC Forest Guard (Van Arakshi) Exam 2023
(Official Answer Key)

PART-2 (General Knowledge and General Studies)

21. In which of the following article the freedom of Press refers to the Rights given by the Indian Constitution?
(a) Article 19(1) (a)
(c) Article 19(1) (c)
(b) Article 19(1) (b)
(d) Article 19(1) (d)

22. Which one of the following consists the committee on Public undertakings of Union Parliament ?
(a) 12 members from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha
(b) 15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha
(c) 11 members from Lok Sabha and 11 from Rajya Sabha
(d) 14 members from Lok Sabha and 8 from Rajya Sabha

23. Regarding altering the boundaries of a State in India, which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Legislation by 2/3 majority of Parliament
(b) Legislation by simple majority of Parliament and concerned States
(c) Legislation by simple majority of Parliament
(d) Legislation by simple majority of Lok Sabha only

24. Which of the following is correct statement of Article 1: (1) of the Indian Constitution?
(a) India, shall be a Union of States.
(b) India, that is Bharat shall be Union of States.
(c) India shall be a Union of Centre and States.
(d) India that is Hindustan shall be Union of States.

25. Right to Information is
(a) Legal Right
(b) Fundamental Right
(c) Social Right
(d) Personal Right

26. Which tax is collected by Gram Panchayat ?
(a) Goods and Service Tax
(b) Tax on Local Fairs
(c) Custom Duty
(d) Land Revenue

27. Which of the Indian State had the lowest Infant Mortality Rate (IMR, per 1000 births) according to NFHS-5 (2019-21)?
(a) Goa
(b) Bihar
(c) Kerala
(d) Sikkim

28. “Smart Cities Mission” was launched in which year?
(a) 2014
(b) 2016
(c) 2017
(d) 2015

29. Who manages the present monetary system in India?
(a) Central Bank of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Finance Ministry
(d) Prime Minister

30. Which was the first ever rural poverty alleviation programme launched in India?
(a) Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme
(b) National Rural Employment Programme
(c) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana
(d) Integrated Rural Development Programme

31. In which of the following zone Sunderban is found?
(a) Tropical dry deciduous forest
(b) Tidal forest
(c) Casurina forest
(d) Desert vegetation

32. ICC women’s T-20 under 19 World Cup 2023 is held at which of the following place?
(a) Potchestroom
(b) Los Angles
(c) Manchester
(d) None of the above

33. A powerful earthquake occurred in Turkey in Feb. 2023. What was its magnitude? Select from the following:
(a) 6.8
(b) 7.8
(c) 8.1
(d) 5.9

34. Supreme Court on 8th February, 2023, ordered the removal of reference to Sikkim-Nepalese people as “people of foreign origin” from its verdict. The verdict was of which date?
(a) 8th October, 2022
(b) 2nd December, 2022
(c) 13th January, 2023
(d) 4th January, 2023

35. The theme of India’s G-20 Presidency is
(a) Satyamev Jayate
(b) One Earth, One Family, One Future (Vasudev Kutumbakam)
(c) One Earth
(d) Globalization

36. Which of the following place is not concerned with Border Gavaskar Trophy 2023?
(a) Nagpur
(b) Delhi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Ahmedabad

37. Which of the following is fastest memory?
(a) Compact disk
(b) Floppy disk
(c) Cache memory
(d) Hard disk

38. __________ shortcut key combination is used to print an opened file in MS-Word.
(a) Shift + W
(b) Ctrl + W
(c) Shift+P
(d) Ctrl + P

39. A software program that is used to view web pages is called
(a) Compiler
(b) Application Program
(c) View
(d) Browser

40. Which of the following is a valid IPV4 address?
(a) 132.64.8.255
(b) 13.260.3.255
(c) 24.0.300.0
(d) None of the above

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Uttarakhand Junior Assistant (Kanisth Sahayak) Exam 2023
(Official Answer Key)

PART – 1 (General Knowledge / General Studies)

1. In Windows OS, in order to permanently delete a file from the computer, which of the following keys should be pressed?
(a) Ctrl + Delete
(b) Alt + Delete
(c) Delete + Delete
(d) Shift + Delete

2. Which of the following king was called ‘Shakari’ ?
(a) Samudragupta
(b) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(c) Chandragupta Maurya
(d) Kanishka

3. The unassigned jagir lands managed temporarily by the Diwan-i-Khalisa was known as :
(a) Peshkash
(b) Paibaqi
(c) Madad-e-Mash
(d) Ghurab

4. The ‘Sunset’ law was associated with which of the following land revenue system?
(a) Ryotwari settlement
(b) Mahalwari settlement
(d) Permanent settlement
(c) Ijaradari system

5. Who gave the slogan “One Religion, One Caste, One God for mankind” ?
(a) Narayan Guru
(b) Jyotiba Phule
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi

6. The Marathas learnt the art of guerilla warfare from:
(a) Mahabat Khan
(b) Man Singh
(c) Malik Amber
(d) None of the above

7. In the context of Indian freedom movement Komagata Maru was a :
(a) Japanese ship
(b) Secret revolutionary society
(c) Banned political organisation
(d) Newspaper

8. Who was credited for taking the first important step towards financial decentralization in India?
(a) Lord Irwin
(b) William Bentinck
(c) Lord Cornwallis
(d) Lord Mayo

9. Which one of the following fundamental rights is available to any person on the soil of India – citizen or foreigner?
(a) Protection from discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
(b) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(c) Cultural and educational rights of minorities
(d) Right against exploitation

10. When was NITI Aayog established?
(a) 2015
(b) 2016
(c) 2017
(d) 2018

11. In India, who is the guardian of public purse?
(a) Indian Parliament
(b) The President of India
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(d) Supreme Court of India

12. How many members are required to call a special meeting of the Zila Parishad ?
(a) 1/2 of the total members
(b) 1/3 of the total members
(c) 1/4 of the total members
(d) 1/5 of the total members

13. A computer having a memory capacity of 256 M Bytes can store ______ bytes at maximum.
(a) 256 × 1024 x 1024
(b) 256 × 106 × 8
(c) 8 x 256 x 256
(d) 1024 × 256

14. In which year the Supreme Court of India passed the Judgement for treating Transgenders as ‘Third Gender’?
(a) 2012
(b) 2014
(c) 2016
(d) 2019

15. Which of the following states has lowest Christians population according to 2011 census?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Himachal Pradesh

16. Which of the following passes of Siachin Glacier is not in India ?
(a) Gyongla
(b) Gasherbrum
(c) Saltoro
(d) Vilafondala

17. India invokes the “Thalweg principle” regarding which of the following?
(a) Kari Creek
(c) Sir Creek
(b) Kajhar Creek
(d) Sir Davis

18. Which one of the following is the best quality of iron ore ?
(a) Siderite
(c) Magnetite
(b) Limonite
(d) Hematite

19. Which one of the following states has maximum percentage of Scheduled Caste population as per 2011 census?
(a) Haryana
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) West Bengal
(d) Himachal Pradesh

20. Rajiv Gandhi National Ground Water Training and Research Institute is located at :
(a) Bhopal
(b) Lucknow
(c) Raipur
(d) Dehradun

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UKPSC Revenue Inspector (Patwari/Lekhpal) Exam Paper 2022
(Official Answer Key)

PART – 2 (General Knowledge / General Studies)

21. Which of the following State Union Territory has highest score in Social Progress Index – 2022 ?
(a) Kerala
(b) Goa
(c) Puducherry
(d) Tamil Nadu

22. Which among the following were the finalist teams of FIFA World Cup – 2022?
(a) Argentina – Germany
(c) Argentina – Netherlands
(b) France – Argentina
(d) France – Spain

23. The current Olympic champion Neeraj Chopra is associated with which of the following game?
(a) Discus throw
(d) Hammer throw
(b) Javelin throw
(c) Shotput

24. Jagdeep Dhankhar had been elected 14th Vice-President after defeating which of the following leader ?
(a) Bebi Rani Mourya
(b) Margaret Alva
(c) Mancka Gandhi
(d) Yashwant Sinha

25. The Prime Minister inaugurated 26th National Youth Festival at which of the following place?
(a) Nagpur
(b) Delhi
(c) Prayagraj
(d) Hubali

26. The first case of animal disease Lumpi was registered in which of the following State of India?
(a) Bihar
(b) Bengal
(c) Odisha
(d) Chhattisgarh

27. Who acts as the “friend, philosopher and guide” of the Public Accounts Committee in India?
(a) Attorney General of India
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

28. In which of the following cases, it was pronounced that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution of India?
(a) Berubari Union, In re
(b) Golak Nath Vs. State of Punjab
(c) Keshavananda Bharati Vs. State of Kerala
(d) All of the above

29. Who among the following considered Directive Principles of State Policy as a decisive Politico-Constitutional tool for bringing about social revolution?
(a) K.C. Wheare
(b) Granville Austin
(c) Paul Brass
(d) Rajni Kothari

30. Who among the following was the first Chief Justice of the Supreme Court to discharge the functions of the President of India ?
(a) Justice H.J. Kania
(b) Justice K. Subba Rao
(c) Justice Mohammad Hidayatullah
(d) Justice P.N. Bhagwati

31. Which sector, was the least impacted by the pandemic (COVID-19) situation and has shown a positive growth in India?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Services
(c) Industrial
(d) Tertiary

32. Who among the following was the chief guest of Republic Day-2023 ?
(a) Joe Biden
(c) Abdel Fateh Alsisi
(b) Rishi Sunak
(d) Joko Widodo

33. Article 338 is related to
(a) National Commission for Scheduled Caste
(b) National Commission for Scheduled Tribe
(c) National Commission for Disabled Persons
(d) National Commission for Women

34. Select the option at the place of (?) that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.
12 : 60 : : 16 : ?
(a) 112
(b) 122
(c) 210
(d) 212

35. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circle facing the centre. E is to the left of D, C is between A and B. F is between E and A. Who is to the left of B ?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E

36. How many triangles are there in the figure given below?

(a) 12
(b) 16
(c) 24
(d) None of these

37. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the “** signs and make the equation correct.
36 * 120 * 4 * 46 * 20
(a) =, ×,÷, –
(b) +, ÷, -, =
(c) ×, ÷,+, –
(d) +, ÷, =, ×

38. Which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements?
Statements:
Some players are singers.
All singers are tall.
Conclusions:
I. Some players are tall.
II. All players are tall.
(a) Both I and II
(b) Only I
(c) Only II
(d) Neither I nor II

39. One of the most important characteristics of Algorithm is to be
(a) infinite
(b) pictorial
(c) finite
(d) symbolic

40. Program written in any High Level Language is known as
(a) .exe program
(b) object program
(c) source program
(d) executable image

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UKPSC Revenue Inspector (Patwari/Lekhpal) Exam Paper 2022
(Answer Key)

PART – 2
General Knowledge / General Studies

21. One of the following is World’s “Hot Spot” of Biodiversity?
(a) Western Ghats
(d) Malabar
(c) Thar desert
(b) Indogangetic Plain

22. Which micro-organism is associated with the production of Bt cotton ?
(a) Fungus
(b) Bacterium
(c) Blue-green algae
(d) Virus

23. Largest flower in plant kingdom is
(a) Rafflesia
(b) Amorphophallus
(c) Dracaena
(d) Boerhaavia

24. When biosphere turn into human dominated environment, it is called
(a) Noosphere
(b) Troposphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere

25. Which of the following is associated with biological nitrogen fixation?
(a) Red algae
(b) Brown algae
(c) Green algae
(d) Blue-green algae

26. ______ is volatile memory.
(a) ROM
(b) EPROM
(c) RAM
(d) None of these

27. Which of the following is related to Internet Security?
(a) MIT
(b) Firewall
(c) DSL
(d) W3C

28. Which of the following is NOT a bus for transferring data between CPU and memory?
(a) Data Bus
(b) Address Bus
(c) Control Bus
(d) Discontrol Bus

29. In a language GRASP is coded as BMVNK, then CRANE would be coded as
(a) FUDGH
(b) HWFSJ
(c) GVERI
(d) XMVIZ

30. How many terms are there in the sequence 201, 208, 215,
(a) 25
(b) 24
(c) 26
(d) 23

31. Find the next term:
Z1A, X2D, V6G, T21J, R88M, P445P, ?
(a) N2676S
(b) N2676T
(d) XMVIZ
(c) T2670N
(d) T2676N

32. President of India Smt. Droupadi Murmu belongs to which State and Tribe?
(a) Odisha & Santhali
(b) Odisha & Bhil
(c) Odisha & Oraon
(d) Odisha & Bhotia

33. SAARC was the brain-child of which of the following leader?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Zia-ur-Rehman
(c) Abdul Gayoom
(d) Zia-Ul-Haque

34. On which date of the following did UN General Assembly adopt the resolution to establish Human Rights Commission?
(a) 10th March, 2006
(b) 5th March, 2006
(c) 15th March, 2006
(d) 9th March, 2006

35. What was the ratio of Gold-Silver in the coins of Shaka-Kshatrapa?
(a) 1:20
(b) 1:14
(c) 1:10
(d) 1:35

36. Ustad Mansur, the court painter of Jahangir was famous for which type of painting?
(a) Birds & animals
(b) Royal portraits
(c) Market life
(d) None of these

37. On which of the following dates, the Government of India had taken police action against Hyderabad State to restore peace and order inside the State?
(a) 13th September, 1948
(c) 18th September, 1948
(b) 17th September, 1948
(d) 26th January, 1950

38. Who among the following was the biggest critic of the church before the French Revolution?
(a) Rousseau
(b) Montesquieu
(c) Voltaire
(d) Diderot

39. The river Luni falls into the following during monsoon:
(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Ganga Sagar
(d) Arabian Sea

40. Pulicat lake is located in between :
(a) Odisha – West Bengal
(b) Kerala – Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu – Andhra Pradesh
(d) Karnataka – Maharashtra

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UKPSC Uttarakhand Police Constable Exam Paper 2022
(Official Answer Key)

PART-2 (General Knowledge / General Studies)

21. The launch date of Indian Satellite Kalamsat V2 is-
(a) 12 January, 2018
(d) 22 July, 2019
(b) 24 January, 2019
(c) 22 May, 2019

22. COVISHIELD, the COVID Vaccine of India is being manufactured by
(a) Bharat Biotech
(b) Panacea Biotech
(c) Serum Institute
(d) Zydus Cadila

23. Wheat grains are ______.
(a) seeds
(b) fruits
(c) modified fruits
(d) entire seeds

24. Who was given the charge of Chairperson, Lokpal after the completion of the term of Justice P.C. Ghose?
(a) Justice Pradip Kumar Mohanty
(c) Justice Ranjana Desai
(b) Justice Abhilasha Kumari
(d) Justice C.K. Prasad

25. Who among the following has been honoured with the first Lata Deena Nath Mangeshkar Award-2022?
(a) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
(b) Information and Broadcasting Minister Anurag Thakur
(c) Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla
(d) Famous musician Pyarelal Ram Prasad Sharma

26. Which city hosted the 12th Def Expo 2022?
(a) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
(b) Gurugram, Haryana
(c) Gandhinagar, Gujarat
(d) Indore, Madhya Pradesh

27. Who of the following has won Women singles title in Syed Modi International Tournament organised in January, 2022?
(a) P.V. Sindhu
(b) Jwala Gutta
(c) Saina Nehwal
(d) Ashwini Ponappa

28. Under which of the following operations Indian Government brought Indian Medical Students from Ukraine to India?
(a) Operation Ganga
(b) Operation Himalaya
(c) Operation Yamuna
(d) Operation Godavari

29. Which of the following option is example of Operating System?
(a) Windows
(b) LINUX
(c) Mac OS
(d) All of the above

30. A terabyte comprises of:
(a) 1024 Gigabyte
(b) 1024 Kilobyte
(c) 1024 Megabyte
(d) 1024 Byte

31. Unsolicited commercial messages sent through e-mail are known as:
(a) PGP
(b) POP
(c) MIME
(d) Spams

32. In which year India’’s I.T. Act came into existence?
(a) 1995
(b) 2000
(c) 2002
(d) 2003

33. Where was Mahavira born?
(a) Pawapuri
(b) Gaya
(c) Lumbini
(d) Vaishali

34. The name of entrance gate of Qutub Minar is:
(a) Qutub Darwaza
(b) Buland Darwaza
(c) Alai Darwaza
(d) Siri Darwaza

35. Which of the following is renewable source of energy?
(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Natural gas
(d) Sunlight

36. Boston Tea Party was associated with:
(a) American Revolution
(b) French Revolution
(c) Russian Revolution
(d) Glorious Revolution.

37. The area of Bushmen is:
(a) Sahara Desert
(b) Atacama Desert
(c) Gobi Desert
(d) Kalahari Desert

38. Which one of the following states has maximum forest area according to India State of Forest Report, 2021?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Telangana

39. Meteor Expedition was related to which of the following?
(a) Depth measurement in Pacific Ocean
(b) Biological studies of the Atlantic Ocean
(c) lee core studies in Cryospheric Region
(d) None of these

40. Shivasamudram Waterfall is situated on which of the following rivers?
(a) Chambal
(b) Narmada
(c) Kaveri
(d) Krishna

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Exam Conduct By – UKPSC (Uttarakhand Public Service Commission)
Post Name – Uttarakhand Combined State Civil/ Upper Subordinate Services
Paper Set – B
Date of Exam – 03 April 2022
Total Questions – 100

Official Answer Key Download 

UKPSC Upper Subordinate Services (Preliminary) Exam 2022
Paper II (General Aptitude Test)
(Official Answer Key)

1. Solve the following two lines number series and find the value of number:
3,4,9, 26, 69
5, 6, a, b, c, d
(a) 91
(b) 95
(c) 157
(d) 160

2. If CBA + CCA = ACD, where A, B, C and D stand for distinct digits and D = 0, then the value of A is :
(a) o
(6) 4
(c) 5
(d) 9

3. You as a recruitment manager, are interviewing Mayank, a hardworking young man, who has problem in speaking fluent English. Among the following options, what would you choose to do, if your company has vacancies?
(a) I would hire him at all costs.
(b) I would hire him for production or finance job but not for marketing job, which requires good communication skill.
(c) I would ask him to improve his communication skill and come back again.
(d) I would not hire him.

4. From each of the two given numbers, half of the smaller number is subtracted. Of the resulting numbers, if the larger one is three times large as the smaller one, what is the ratio of two numbers ?
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) None of the above

5. Below is given a statement followed by two assumptions I & II. Decide which of the following assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.
Statement : Provide mid-day meals to the children in primary schools to increase the number of students attending school.
Assumptions :
I : Mid-day meals will attract the children to school.
II : Those children who are otherwise deprived of good food will attend the schools.
(a) Only I is implicit.
(b) Only II is implicit.
(c) Both I & II are implicit.
(d) Neither I nor II are implicit.

6. The following table shows the average monthly house-hold expenditure on different items for a month :

To represent the data by percentage bar diagram, the portion for rent in the bar would be :
(a) 48.13%
(b) 6.95%
(c) 19.25%
(d) 25.67%

7. When a number is divisible by 7, it gives 3 as remainder. Find the total possible numbers of such type lying between 11 and 100.
(a) 14
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 18

8. On the basis of the following information, tell how many girls are tall ?

• half the children are either tall or short.
• forty percent of the children are girls.
• one third of the boys are of medium height.

(a) 0
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) cannot be determined

9. On the basis of following bar-diagram, tell, what is the percentage increase in the number of movie theatres from 1960 to 1990 ?

(a) 12%
(b) 120%
(c) 940%
(d) 1300%

10. The following Bar diagram shows the population of Mumbai and Delhi (in thousands) in a certain year. Number within brackets denote % of males in the given population.

If 90% of males in Mumbai are literate and if 80% of females in Delhi are literate, then ratio of number of illiterate males in Mumbai to number of illiterate females in Delhi is close to :
(a) 0.89
(b) 0.32
(c) 1.73
(d) 0.61

11. From the four answer figures, choose the one which will continue the following figures :

12. Which letter is midway between the 21st letter from the right and the 16th letter from the left in the English alphabet ?
(a) J
(b) K
(c) L
(d) O

13. How many pairs of letters does the word ‘IMPERISHABLE’ contain such that the two letters of a pair have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet and in the same order ?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

14. In a code language, the following numbers are coded with the symbols given below:

Then the sum of ‘& % $’ and ‘+^#’ in the code language is :
(a) ^+^@
(b) @^+^
(c) & @* $
(d) ~^%#

15. The independence day was celebrated on Wednesday in the year 1988. On which day it was celebrated in the year 1989 ?
(a) Monday
(b) Tuesday
(c) Thursday
(d) Friday

16. In a certain code ‘BAKE’ is written as 5796 and ‘FIRE’ is written as 3146. How is ‘FEAR’ written in that code ?
(a) 3564
(b) 3574
(c) 3649
(d) 3674

17.

If the total number of students is 3000, then the number of students in section A and B together is :
(a) 840
(b) 960
(c) 720
(d) 880

18. If 256 is coded as ‘you are good’, 637 is coded as ‘we are bad’ and 358 is coded as ‘good and bad’, then the code of ‘and’ is :
(a) 6
(b) 2
(c) 8
(d) 7

19. Find out the missing number :

(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 13

20. What will appear in place of question mark (?) shown below?
LOM: NMK :: PKI : _?_
(a) RIH
(b) SHG
(c) RIG
(d) RHG

The post UKPSC Preliminary Exam Paper II (General Aptitude Test) 03 April 2022 (Official Answer Key) appeared first on TheExamPillar -Uttarakhand .

Exam Conduct By – UKPSC (Uttarakhand Public Service Commission)
Post Name – Uttarakhand Combined State Civil/ Upper Subordinate Services
Paper Set – B
Date of Exam – 03 April 2022
Total Questions – 150

Official Answer Key Download 

Uttarakhand Upper Subordinate Services (Preliminary) Exam 2022
Paper I (General Studies)
(Official Answer Key)

1. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India, contains provisions regarding Anti-defection Act ?
(a) 4th Schedule
(b) 6th Schedule
(c) 8th Schedule
(d) 10th Schedule

2. How many members are elected from the Lok Sabha for Public Account Committee?
(a) 07
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 22

3. The Congress declared complete Independence for India as its goal at which session ?
(a) Lahore Session 1929
(b) Calcutta Session 1928
(c) Allahabad Session 1930
(d) None of the above

4. When the Hindi version of National Anthem Jana-Gana-Mana was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India ?
(a) 26 November, 1949
(b) 24 January, 1950
(c) 17 November, 1947
(d) 9 December, 1946

5. Among the following who was the first President of Human Rights Commission of India ?
(a) Justice M.N. Venkatchaillaiya
(b) Justice J. Ş. Verma
(c) Justice K. Rama Swami
(d) Justice Rangnath Mishra

6. Who among the following was the first Lieutenent Governor of newly created Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir ?
(a) Radha Krishan Mathur
(b) Girish Chandra Murmu
(c) Manoj Sinha
(d) Satyapal Malik

7. To whom the Chief of Defense Staff (CDS) is military advisor on Tri-services matters ?
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Defence Minister of India
(d) Home Minister of India

8. In which year the International Labour Organisation was established ?
(a) 1919
(b) 1920
(c) 1921
(d) 1922

9. Right to Property belongs to which category amongst the following ?
(a) Legal Right
(b) Fundamental Right
(c) Natural Right
(d) Human Right

10. Who among the following chairs the Zonal Council ?
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) Home Minister of India
(c) Chief Ministers of the zones in rotations
(d) Finance Minister of India

11. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within ______ month(s).
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Six
(d) Nine

12. In which year, the SAARC Summit, for the first time was held in India ?
(a) 1986
(b) 1995
(c) 2007
(d) None of these

13. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments is related to the formation of the National Commission for Backward Classes in India ?
(a) The 100th Constitutional Amendment
(b) The 101st Constitutional Amendment
(c) The 102nd Constitutional Amendment
(d) None of these

14. What is the tenure of a member of State Legislative Council ?
(a) 5 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 7 years
(d) 4 years

15. Who was the Prime Minister of India when the basic principle of India’s Nuclear Doctrine of ‘No First Use’ was adopted ?
(a) I.K. Gujaral
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(c) Manmohan Singh
(d) Indira Gandhi

16. On which of the following dates the Civil Services Day’ is celebrated in India ?
(a) July 21
(b) June 21
(c) May 21
(d) April 21

17. In which year the Central Information Commission was established ?
(a) 2005
(b) 2006
(c) 2007
(d) 2008

18. In which year ‘The Air (Prevention And Control of Pollution) Act’ was enacted ?
(a) 1980
(b) 1974
(c) 1981
(d) 1986

19. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

Codes :
.  A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 4 3 2 1

20. Who among the following has the right to participate in the parliamentary proceedings?
(a) Attorney General of India
(b) Solicitor General of India
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) None of these

The post UKPSC Upper Subordinate Services (Preliminary) Exam Paper 03 April 2022 (Official Answer Key) appeared first on TheExamPillar -Uttarakhand .

Exam Conduct By – UKPSC (Uttarakhand Public Service Commission)
Post Name – UKPSC Advocate General’s RO/ARO 
Paper Set – B
Date of Exam – 27 March 2022
Total Questions – 200

UKPSC RO/ARO (Review Officer/Assistant Review Officer) Exam Paper 2022
(Official Answer Key)

1. ‘Fezenda’ is known as:
(a) Fields of Sugarcane
(b) Fields of Cotton
(c) Coffee Plantation
(d) Fruit Gardens

2. Darling is a :
(a) Canal
(b) City
(c) Lake
(d) River

3. Which one of the following is a characteristic of Tropical Rainforests?
(a) Rainfall in summer season
(b) Rainfall throughout the year
(c) Rainfall in winter season only
(d) A definite wet and dry season

4. The longest river of China is :
(a) Yangtze (Yang Tse Kiang)
(c) Wei Ho
(b) Hwang Ho
(d) Si Kiang

5. Which one of the following countries is called, “Land of Thunderbolt” ?
(a) Nepal
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Bhutan

6. The far-northern island of Japan is :
(a) Kyushu
(c) Hokkaido (Hokaido)
(b) Shikoku
(d) Honshu

7. The cause of wind to deflect towards left in Southern hemisphere is –
(a) Atmospheric Pressure
(b) Rotation of the Earth
(c) Temperature
(d) Earth’s magnetic field

8. The nearest planet to the earth is :
(a) Venus
(b) Mars
(c) Mercury
(d) Jupiter

9. The highest mountain peak in the world outside Asian Continent is:
(a) Mt. Logan (Mount Logan)
(b) Mount Elbrus
(c) Mount Aconcagua
(d) Mount Kilimanjaro

10. The highest waterfall in the world is :
(a) Victoria fall
(b) Angel fall
(c) Niagra falls
(d) Tugela fall

11. The fishing area of North Sea in Europe is known as:
(a) Danish Bank
(b) Scandenavian Bank
(c) Grand Bank
(d) Dogger Bank

12. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) First Battle of Tarain – 1192 A.D.
(b) Second Battle of Panipat – 1576 A.D.
(c) Battle of Chandawar – 1194 A.D.
(d) Timur’s Invasion on India – 1378 A.D.

13. Gandhi Sagar Dam is a part of:
(a) Kosi Project
(b) Damodar Valley Project
(c) Chambal Project
(d) Bhakra-Nangal Dam

14. Which one of the following is most fertile soil ?
(a) Laterite soil
(b) Alluvial soil
(c) Red soil
(d) Sandy loam soil

15. The smallest union territory of India in terms of area is :
(a) Puducherry
(b) Daman and Diu
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(d) Lakshadweep

16. India’s first ‘Bullet Train Project’ is under construction in between :
(a) Mumbai and Ahmedabad (Sabarmati)
(b) Mumbai and Pune
(c) Mumbai and Nagpur
(d) Delhi and Kolkata

17. Which one of the following is oldest mountain range in India ?
(a) Satpura
(b) Vindhyanchal
(c) Aravali
(d) Garo and Khasi

18. Which one of the following is not an oil refinery (Petroleum)?
(a) Jamnagar
(b) Jamshedpur
(c) Digboi
(d) Barauni

19. According to 2011 census, the population density of India is :
(a) 410
(b) 325
(c) 432
(d) 382

20. Keymore in Madhya Pradesh is famous for :
(a) Cement industry
(b) Paper industry
(c) Aluminium industry
(d) Automobile industry

The post UKPSC Advocate General’s RO/ARO Exam Paper 27 March 2022 (Official Answer Key) appeared first on TheExamPillar -Uttarakhand .