UPSC IAS (CSE) Pre Exam 2024 (Answer Key)
Paper – I (General Studies)

1. Consider the following statements:
Statement – I : The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
Statement – II : Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave
radiation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

2. Consider the following statements:
Statement – I : Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.
Statement – II :  At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(a) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct 

3. Consider the following:
1. Pyroclastic debris
2. Ash and dust
3. Nitrogen compounds
4. Sulphur compounds
How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

4. Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January?
1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.
2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?
(a) Algeria and Morocco
(b) Botswana and Namibia
(c) Cote d’Ivoire and Ghana
(d) Madagascar and Mozambique

6. With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?
(a) Ghaghara – Gomati – Gandak – Kosi
(b) Gomati – Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi
(c) Ghaghara – Gomati – Kosi – Gandak
(d) Gomati – Ghaghara – Kosi – Gandak

7. Consider the following statements: 
Statement – I – Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.
Statement – II – Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.
Statement – III – Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I
(d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

8. Consider the following countries:
1. Finland
2. Germany
3. Norway
4. Russia
How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

9. Consider the following information:

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None

10. Consider the following information:

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

The post UPSC CSE (Preliminary) Exam 2024 Paper I (GS) – 16 June 2024 (Answer Key) appeared first on TheExamPillar -Uttarakhand .

UPSC IAS (CSE) Pre Exam 2023 (Answer Key)
Paper – I (General Studies)

1. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:
1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

2. With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

3. Consider the following pairs:
Regions often mentioned in news : Reason for being in news
1. North Kivu and Ituri : War between Armenia and Azerbaijan
2. Nagorno-Karabakh : Insurgency in Mozambique
3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia : Dispute between Israel and Lebanon
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

4. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.
Statement-II:
The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-Il is correct

5. Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards:
1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award : For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years
2. Arjuna Award : For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson
3. Dronacharya Award : To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams
4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar : To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

6. Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022:
1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.
2. The official mascot was named Thambi’.
3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

7. Consider the following pairs :
Area of conflict mentioned in news – Country where it is located
1. Donbas : Syria
2. Kachin : Ethiopia
3. Tigray : North Yemen
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

8. In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of them?
(a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements
(b) Establishment of Chinese military bases
(c) Southward expansion of Sahara Desert
(d) Successful coups

9. Consider the following heavy industries:
1. Fertilizer plants
2. Oil refineries
3. Steel plants
Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

10. Consider the following statements about G-20:
1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance and Ministers Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues.
2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

11. With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with
(a) archaeological excavations
(b) establishment of English Press in Colonial India
(c) establishment of Churches in Princely States
(d) construction of railways in Colonial India

12. Consider the following pairs:
Site : Well known for
1. Besnagar : Shaivite cave shrine
2. Bhaja : Buddhist cave shrine
3. Sittanavasal : Jain cave shrine
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

13. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day.
Statement-II:
It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

14. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:
Statement-I:
One of the the National standard sizes of Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.
Statement-II :
The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

15. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:
Statement-I :
The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II:
1949, the On 26th November, Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

16. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I :
Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.
Statement-II:
Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

17. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the ‘Trade and Technology Council’.
Statement-II:
The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

18. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I:
India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.
Statement-II :
Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India. have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

19. Consider the following statements:
The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that
1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union
2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities
3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

20. Consider the following statements:
1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’.
2. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

The post UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Exam 2023 Paper I (General Studies) 28 May 2023 (Answer Key) appeared first on TheExamPillar -Uttarakhand .

Exam  – UPSC CDS (II) 2022
Organized by – UPSC
Subject – General Knowledge
Date of Exam – 4^th September, 2022
SET – C
Number of Question  – 120

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UPSC CDS (II) 2022 Exam Paper (Answer Key)
Subject – General Knowledge

1. Which of the following States has/have bicameral legislature ?
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Telangana
3. Bihar
4. Uttar Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

2. By which one of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts, was the Article 21A (Right to Education) inserted into the Constitution of India ?
(a) 83rd Amendment Act
(b) 84th Amendment Act
(c) 85th Amendment Act
(d) 86th Amendment Act

3. An object is dropped from a height onto the floor. Which one of the following remains uniform as it falls ?
(a) Its acceleration
(b) Its momentum
(c) Its kinetic energy
(d) Its potential energy

4. If an object is placed at the focus of a convex lens, its image is
(a) at the focus on the same side.
(b) at the focus on the opposite side.
(c) coincident with the lens.
(d) at infinity

5. Which one of the following statements about the aperture of a convex lens is correct?
(a) It is equal to its radius of curvature.
(b) It is equal to its focal length.
(c) It is independent of its radius of curvature.
(d) It is equal to half of its focal length:

6. When water is heated from 0°C to 4°C, its density.
(a) remains constant
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) first increases then decreases to its original value.

7. The acceleration due to gravity at the Earth’s surface depends on
(a) its mass only.
(b) its radius only.
(c) both its mass and radius.
(d) either its mass or its radius.

8. In which one of the following highlands of India can you find temperate forests called ‘Sholas’?
(a) Nilgiris
(b) Vindhyass
(c) Satpuras
(d) Himalayas

9. ‘Pingos’ are associated with which one of the following process?
(a) Glacial
(b) Peri-glacial
(c) Aeolian
(d) Fluvial

10. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

Code:
.  A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 1 4 2

11. Which one of the following processes leads to expansion of certain minerals as they take up water, causing additional stress in the rock ?
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Hydration
(c) Oxidation
(d) Carbonation

12. The Indian desert also known as Marusthali is believed to be under the sea during which one of the following eras?
(a) Cenozoic era
(b) Palaeozoic era
(c) Mesozoic era
(d) Archaean and Pre-Cambrian era

13. Which among the following are Charva Schools of Philosophy ?
1. Dhurtta
2. Nyaya
3. Sushikshita
4. Vaisheshika
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

14. During the 8th-14th centuries, in the Sanskrit texts and inscriptions, which of the following terms were used to denote Muslims?
1. Turushka
2. Tajika
3. Parashika
4. Kardamaka
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4

15. In the citadel and lower-town areas of which one of the following Harappan cities, have several large cisterns and reservoirs been found?
(a) Banawali
(b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Dholavira
(d) Rakhigarhi

16. Consider the following statements about cavalry warfare in India :
1. The iron stirrup made it possible for the armoured warrior to sit firmly on a horse without falling off.
2. The iron stirrup also allowed a cavalry charge with lances held tightly to the body, without the rider being thrown off by the shock of impact.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

17. The British policy towards Afghanistan in the first half of the 19th century aimed at
(a) Strengthening Afghanistan as a buffer against Russia.
(b) Weakening Russian influence in Afghanistan but not promoting a strong Afghanistan either.
(c) Promoting Russian influence in Afghanistan to control insurgent tribal leaders.
(d) Annexing Afghanistan as a directly-controlled British Territory.

18. Recently, the United Nations agreed to change the name of which one of the following countries?
(a) Algeria
(b) Jordan
(c) Morocco
(d) Turkey

19. The SWIFT (The Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication) frequently mentioned in news, is essentially a
(a) Global financial intelligence agency
(b) Global terror finance detection system
(c) Global money transfer system
(d) Global stock-market information sharing system

20. P-75I (or P-75 India) project refers to manufacture of
(a) Diesel-electric submarines.
(b) Nuclear-powered submarines.
(c) Aircraft carrier warships.
(d) Field guns.

The post UPSC CDS 2 Exam – 04 Sep 2022 (General Knowledge) (Answer Key) appeared first on TheExamPillar -Uttarakhand .

Exam  – UPSC CDS (II) 2022
Organized by – UPSC
Subject – English
Date of Exam – 4^th September, 2022
SET – D
Number of Question  – 120

UPSC CDS (II) 2022 Exam Paper (Answer Key)
Subject – English

SPOTTING ERRORS

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

1.
(a) It would be nice to have
(b) a good evening stroll
(c) after five hours of office.
(b) No error

2.
(a) Arun likes
(b) Geography more than
(c) he likes History.
(d) No error

3.
(a) While the solar energy has grabbed the spotlight,
(b) wind power too has been made steady progress
(c) across the world and in India.
(d) No error

4.
(a) Pride brings a
(b) great dealing of vanity,
(c) an egotistic inflation.
(d) No error

5.
(a) Persuasion happens only
(b) when someone takes a stand
(c) from which he has unwilling to move.
(d) No error

6.
(a) The food consumed
(b) is converted on
(c) the body into glucose.
(d) No error

7.
(a) This testing method requires
(b) one to fast overnight after which
(c) the fasting blood sugar level is measured.
(d) No error

8.
(a) Multiple research studies
(b) have laid emphasis on the importance
(c) of walking to improved glucose control.
(d) No error

9.
(a) This also allows
(b) individual writers
(c) to play his strengths.
(d) No error

10.
(a) As a screen writer,
(b) there are, broadly speaking,
(c) two kind of jobs in the film world.
(d) No error

PARTS OF SPEECH

Directions: Each of the following sentences has a word or phrase underlined. Read the sentences carefully and find which part of speech the underlined word belongs to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

11. He headed the Indian freedom struggle which paved the way for non-violent struggle for other countries in the 20^th century:
(a) Relative pronoun
(b) Adjective
(c) Interrogative
(d) Assertive

12. Where there is peace for some time, there will be prosperity.
(a) Interrogative
(b) Adverb
(c) Adjective
(d) Relative pronoun

13. Alas! We have been defeated is
(a) Adjective
(b) Connector
(c) Interjection
(d) Interrogative

14. A zero is a zero always.
(a) Noun
(b) Compound noun
(c) Pronoun
(d) Adjective

15. May you be blessed with all good things of life.
(a) Verb
(b) Adverb
(c) Noun
(d) Pronoun

16. The lake is one of the more beautiful ones in the country.
(a) Adjective
(b) Adverb
(c) Quantifier
(d) Noun

17. Honesty is the best policy.
(a) Countable noun
(b) Pronoun
(c) Common noun
(d) Uncountable noun

18. There is many a slip between the cup and the lip.
(a) Preposition
(b) Adverb
(c) Connector
(d) Conjunction

19. Ravi and Megha reached first, but Guha and Saavi finished third.
(a) Interjection
(b) Conjunction
(c) Connector
(d) Pronoun

20. He is the most sought after teacher in the school.
(a) Determiner
(b) Adverb
(c) Adjective
(d) Interjection

The post UPSC CDS 2 Exam – 04 Sep 2022 (English) (Answer Key) appeared first on TheExamPillar -Uttarakhand .

Exam – UPSC CAPF (AC) Exam 2022
Subject – Paper  I (General Ability and Intelligence)
Exam Date – 07^th August, 2022
BOOKLET SERIES – A

UPSC CAPF (AC) 2022 Exam Paper
Paper – I (General Ability and Intelligence)
(Answer Key)

1. Which one of the following is the difference of the sum of cubes of first ten natural numbers and the sum of squares of first ten natural numbers?
(a) 2400
(b) 2640
(c) 2880
(d) 2000

2. A person buys an item from a shop for which the shopkeeper offers a discount of 10% on the marked price. The person pays using an e-wallet which gives 10% cash back. Which one of the following 19 is the value of effective discount?
(a) 20%
(b) 18%
(c) 19%
(d) 21%

3. A solid spherical ball made of iron is melted and two new balls are made whose diameters are in the ratio of 1:2. The ratio of the volume of the smaller new ball to the original ball is
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 1 : 5
(c) 2 : 9
(d) 1 : 9

4. Suppose a bank gives an interest of 10% per annum compounded annually for a fixed deposit for a period of two years. What should be the simple interest rate per annum if the maturity amount after two years is to remain the same?
(a) 10%
(b) 10.5%
(c) 11%
(d) 12%

5. A runner’s average speed reduces by 25% every hour. If he runs 16 km in the first hour and he runs for 3 hours, then what is his overall average speed?
(a) 12 km/hr
(b) 12.33 km/hr
(c) 10.33 km/hr
(d) 13 km/hr

6. Trough and ridge are
(a) elongated area of low pressure and of high pressure respectively
(b) elongated areas of low pressure
(c) elongated areas of high pressure
(d) elongated area of high pressure and of low pressure respectively

7. The boundary layer of the forest at which the energy exchange occurs and some insolation is returned directly to space is
(a) forest floor
(b) forest soil
(c) forest canopy
(d) forest litter

8. The organisms that prefer high salt concentration habitats refer to as
(a) alkaliphiles
(b) calcifuges
(c) halophiles
(d) nitrophiles

9. Which one of the following is not an operating system?
(a) MS-Windows
(b) Linux
(c) Ubuntu
(d) MS-Excel

10. Which one of the following protocols is not an application layer of the TCP/IP model?
(a) FTP
(b) HTTP
(c) DNS
(d) IP

11. Which one of the following is a semi-conductor device that is used to increase the power of the incoming signals by preserving the shape of the original signal?
(a) Register
(b) Transistor
(c) Flip-flop
(d) Diode

12. Which of the following combinations correctly represents the genetic materials in prokaryotes and eukaryotes respectively?
(a) Nucleoid and Chromatin
(b) Chromatin and Nucleoid
(c) Nucleoid and Nucleolus
(d) Nucleolus and Chromatin

13. Lysosomes are sacs of the cell filled with digestive enzymes. These digestive enzymes are synthesized by
(a) Golgi bodies
(b) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(c) rough endoplasmic reticulum
(d) lysosome itself

14. Which of the following best represents the cells of a meristem of plant?
(a) Dense cytoplasm, thin cell wall, large vacuoles nuclei and absence of
(b) Dense cytoplasm, thin cell wall, large nuclei and large vacuoles
(c) Dense cytoplasm, thin cell wall, nuclei and absence of Telmall vacuoles
(d) Dense cytoplasm, thick cell wall, small nuclei and large vacuoles

15. Which one of the following animals has a four-chambered heart?
(a) King cobra
(b) Turtle
(c) Chameleonar
(d) Crocodile

16. One way characters of incorporating desired characters into crop varieties is hybridization. In this process, there is crossing between genetically dissimila plants. Which one of the following crossings will not refer to hybridization?
(a) Intervarietal
(b) Interspecific
(c) Intergenic
(d) Intragenic

17. Depending on plant nutrients the requirements, are classified as micronutrients and macronutrients. Which one of the following is an example of a macronutrient?
(a) Manganese
(b) Copper
(c) Magnesium
(d) Chlorine

18. Buds produced in the notches along the leaf margin of Bryophyllum fall on soil and develop into new plants. This is an example of which one of the following types of reproduction?
(a) Vegetative propagation
(b) Budding
(c) Spore formation
(d) Regeneration

19. Phloem tissues are mostly responsible for transport of
(a) water
(b) oxygen
(c) minerals
(d) food

20. Two objects, x and y, have equal mass and are moving with speeds u and 3u respectively. Their kinetic energies are related as
(a) k_x = k_y
(b) 2k_x = k_y
(c) 9k_x = k_y
(d) 3k_x = k_y

The post UPSC CAPF AC (Assistant Commandants) Exam 07 Aug 2022 Paper 1 (General Studies and Intelligence) (Answer Key) appeared first on TheExamPillar -Uttarakhand .

Exam – UPSC (IAS/IFS) Pre 2022
Subject – Paper – I – General Studies (GS) 
Date of Exam – 05 June, 2021
Total Questions – 100
BOOKLET SERIES – A

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UPSC IAS (CSE) Pre Exam 2022
Paper – I (General Studies)
(Answer Key) 

1. “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following ?
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
(d) World Bank

2. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) land 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

3. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :
1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

4. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements :
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?
1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

6. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy?
1. Farmers harvesting their crops
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company
4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

8. Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India ?
(a) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment
(b) A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment
(c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India
(d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India

9. With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt:
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

11. Consider the following statements :
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 3 only

12. With reference to India, consider the following statements :
1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. Consider the following statements :
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

14. Consider the following statements :
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ?
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

16. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements :
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

17. Consider the following statements :
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

18. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements :
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

19. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements :
1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

20. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

The post UPSC Civil Services Prelims Exam Paper I (General Studies) 05 June 2022 (Answer Key) appeared first on TheExamPillar -Uttarakhand .

Exam  – UPSC CDS (II) 2021
Organized by – UPSC
Subject – English
Date of Exam – 14^th November, 2021
SET – B
Number of Question  – 120

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UPSC CDS (II) Exam 2021
English
(Answer Key)

IDIOMS AND PHRASES

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate response from among (a), (b), (c) or (d), and mark your response in the answer sheet accordingly.

1. Forty winks
(a) Winking forty times
(b) Sleep disorders
(c) Long sleeping hours
(d) A short sleep during the day

2. Life in the raw
(a) Life in its natural, unembellished state
(b) Life at its easiest
(c) Life that is complex
(d) A daredevil’s life

3. A paper tiger
(a) A person or thing that appears threatening but is ineffectual
(b) To threaten someone but do no harm
(c) Environmental protection paper work
(d) To speak to people in a roaring voice

4. Penny-wise and pound-foolish
(a) Wise to spend each penny carefully
(b) Careful about small amounts but careless about large amounts
(c) People who don’t understand the importance of each penny
(d) Careful about large amounts but careless about small amounts

5. Pin back your ears
(a) To listen carefully to something
(b) Person or organisation that pins important issues
(c) To keep yourself away from hearing bad stuff
(d) To clean your ears with a pin

6. Turncoat
(a) Expert at altering coats
(b) Someone who deserts one group to join another
(c) A truly dishonest person
(d) Going round and round in a court of law

7. Say your piece
(a) Speak but don’t listen
(b) Speak in a talkative manner
(c) Make your argument piece by piece
(d) Express your opinion

8. Top-notch
(a) The highest marking on a tree or a building
(b) Person or organization that attracts only the top
(c) Of highest possible quality
(d) Person of integrity

9. Under the table
(a) Work under difficult circumstances
(b) Working undercover
(c) Working under furniture
(d) Making or receiving payments surreptitiously

10. At the drop of a hat
(a) Clumsy person who drops hats everywhere
(b) Suddenly and without much thought
(c) Do something without much pressure
(d) A happy and easygoing man

ORDERING OF SENTENCES

Directions : In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled as P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the answer sheet.

11.
S1: An ideal citizen is one who establishes his standard in everything.
S6: He can be called a thorough gentleman.
P: Because he is a true patriot.
Q: Also, he can lay down his life for the honour of his country.
R: That he can make any sacrifice for his motherland
S: He loves his country so much so.
The correct sequence should be
(a) S R Q P
(b) R P Q S
(c) P Q R S
(d) Q R S P

12.
S1: There are multiple legal avenues for patients to indict doctors, but rarely is it the other way round.
S6: It is clear that patients have multiple avenues to pursue, should they feel an injustice has been perpetrated against them.
P: An FIR can be lodged against them under the section 304A of the Indian Penal Code.
Q: A compensation case can be filed in a consumer forum.
R: For one occurrence, there are multiple forums where doctors have to defend themselves.
S: For instance, a complaint can be made to their employer.
The correct sequence should be
(a) P Q R S
(b) P S R Q
(c) R S Q P
(d) S R Q P

13.
S1: Paragraphs are the building blocks of any write-up.
S6: Understanding of these makes one a good writer of paragraphs.
P: A paragraph need not be pages together in length.
Q: But actually a paragraph is a group of at least five sentences on the lower limit.
R: In reality, unity and coherence, not length, constitute a real good paragraph.
S: Many people define paragraphs in terms of their length.
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q P R S
(b) R Q P S
(c) S Q P R
(d) Q R S P

14.
S1: Then what is necessary with regard to taming science and technology is :
S6: Then why do we not tame atomic energy to peaceful purposes ?
P: We must have the basic know ledge of the two.
Q: It is said, ‘Science is a useful servant but destructive master’.
R: By the misuse of science, mankind will meet its doom quite soon.
S: If we do not harness it for the welfare of mankind, I am afraid, a total annihilation is a must.
The correct sequence should be
(a) S R Q P
(b) P Q S R
(C) R Q S P
(d) Q R S P

15.
S1: Uttarakhand is vulnerable to disasters.
S6: The lack of ability to learn lessons from disasters, and the lack of any accountability, ensure the per petuation of the situation.
P: The absence of necessary monitoring, early warning systems and the overall disaster management system add another layer of damages during the disasters.
Q: Major interventions act as force multipliers during such disasters.
R: The violation of legal and other prudent norms, further increases the damages.
S: Climate change is increasing these vulnerabilities.
The correct sequence should be .
(a) S Q R P
(b) P Q S R
(c) Q S R P
(d) R P S Q

16.
S1: Now only fifteen minutes were left.
S6: Our performance was excellent.
P: Thank God, we rubbed the word ‘defeat’ writ large on our forehead.
Q: It was a game of life and death.
R: Each one had concluded that we were going to lose.
S: It was a matter of minutes.
The correct sequence should be
(a) P S Q R
(b) P Q S R
(c) R P S Q
(d) R S Q P

17.
S1: The river Ganga is very important for us culturally, spiritually, ecologically as well as economically.
S6: Journey in the right direction is firmly making progress, gathering momentum and becoming a people’s movement.
P: It is rich in cultural heritage, natural splendour and biodiversity.
Q: People have used its water since the beginning of civilisation for different purposes.
R: It has most dense cultivation in its basin and is critical for ensuring food and water security.
S: We need to utilise its water for different purposes while ensuring that its natural ecology is protected, aquatic life thrives, and forests along the river remain rejuvenated.
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q R S P
(b) Q S R P
(c) R S Q P
(d) P R Q S

18.
S1: The Republic Day in India falls on 26th January.
S6: He attends the march past.
P: The President of India takes the salute.
Q: It is organized at the India Gate.
R: People from far and wide come to witness it.
S: It is celebrated with great pomp and show.
The correct sequence should be
(a) P R S Q
(b) P Q S R
(c) S R Q P
(d) R S Q P

19.
S1: Different people have different hobbies.
S6: With hobbies, you spend time in a gainful way.
P: Thus, they say, as many people, so many hobbies.
Q: In due course, that becomes your hobby.
R: Whatever leisure time you get, you use that in creative activity.
S: Hobby is a leisure time activity.
The correct sequence should be
(a) P Q R S
(b) P Q S R
(c) S R Q P
(d) R S Q P

20.
S1: Life in a village is ideal.
S6: They can no longer be considered backward.
P: Our villages are no longer dirty.
Q: Moreover, they are disease-free.
R: Because, the village people are well-educated now.
S: Rather, they are highly clean and tidy.
The correct sequence should be
(a) S R Q P
(b) P S Q R
(C) S R P Q
(d) R S Q P

The post UPSC CDS 2 Exam 14 Nov 2021 Paper (English) (Answer Key) appeared first on TheExamPillar -Uttarakhand .

Exam  – UPSC CDS (II) 2021
Organized by – UPSC
Subject – General Knowledge
Date of Exam – 14^th November, 2021
SET – B
Number of Question  – 120

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UPSC CDS (II) Exam 2021
General Knowledge
(Answer Key)

1. Who among the following ancient Indian kings was praised in glowing terms in the Prayaga Prashasti?
(a) Ashoka
(b) Harshavardhana
(c) Samudragupta
(a) Bindusara

2. The Self-Respect Movement was initiated by
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Jyotiba Phule
(c) E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

3. The location of the ancient city of Taxila (Takshshila), mentioned in ancient Indian texts, was identified by
(a) Alexander Cunnigham
(b) R.D. Banerji
(c) John Marshall
(d) Daya Ram Sahni

4. Who among the following was not a Jain Acharya ?
(a) Bhadrabahu
(b) Khema
(c) Haribhadra
(d) Siddhasena Divakara

5. In India, the first major public appearance of Mahatma Gandhi was in
(a) Champaran (1917)
(b) Kheda (1918)
(c) Inauguration of Banaras Hindu University (1916)
(d) Rowlatt Satyagraha (1919)

6. Consider the following statements about Patanjali’s Mahabhashya :
1. It makes a mention of Kautilya.
2. It is a book on grammar and refers to historical personalities only incidentally.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. Which one of the following may lead to movement along the demand curve of a commodity ?
(a) Change in its price
(b) Change in price of the other commodities
(c) Change in income of the consumer
(d) Change in tastes and preferences of consumers

8. Which one of the following is the opportunity cost of a chosen activity ?
(a) Out of pocket cost
(b) Out of pocket cost plus cost incurred by the Government
(c) Value of all opportunities forgone
(d) Value of next best alternative that is given up

9. Which one of the following statements in the context of social sector spending in India during 2014 – 19 (both States and the Union Government together) is true?
(a) Expenditure on education was 5% of GDP.
(b) Expenditure on health was 4% of the social services expenditure.
(c) There was a stagnation in the spending on education as a percent of GDP.
(d) Health sector spending amounted to

10. According to UNDP’s Human Development Report – 2020, in which of the HDI components has India improved in recent years?
1. Life expectancy at birth
2. Expected years of schooling
3. GNI per capita
4. Mean years of schooling
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

11. Which one of the following is true of a pure voluntary exchange between two parties A and B?
(a) A can exploit B or vice versa
(b) Both gain; it is a win-win situation
(c) If A makes profit, it must be at the cost of B
(d) Both can lose

12. The provision, the State shall take steps to separate the Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State’ is incorporated in which part of the Constitution of India ?
(a) Part-IV
(b) Part-V
(c) Part-VI
(d) Part-VII

13. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Speaker may permit any Member to address the House in his/her mother tongue, if he/she cannot adequately express in either Hindi or English.
2. Business of the Parliamentary Committees is transacted either in Hindi or in English
3. The minutes of the Parliamentary Committees are prepared invariably in Hindi or English.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

14. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of the term ‘State’, as defined in Article 12 of the Constitution of India ?
(a) It refers only to the Government of India.
(b) It refers only to the Government of India and the Parliament of India.
(c) It refers only to the Government of India, Parliament of India, and Governments and Legislatures of each State.
(d) It’ refers to the Government of India, Parliament of India, Governments and Legislatures of each State, and all local or other authorities within the territory of India.

15. Which one among the following is the largest State in terms of seats in the Rajya Sabha ?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Karnataka

16. Under which Article of the Constitution of India has provision been made for reservation of seats for women in Panchayats?
(a) Article 243 B
(b) Article 243 C
(c) Article 243 D
(d) Article 243 E

17. The painted illustration of the moving of the Ashoka Pillar at-Topra is found in
(a) Tarikh-i-Firuz Shahi
(b) Tarikh-i-Shahi
(c) Sirat-i-Firuz Shahi
(d) Akbar Nama

18. Which one among the following is a temple of the Vaishnavite tradition ?
(a) Srirangam
(b) Chidambaram
(c) Gangaikonda Cholapuram
(d) Thanjavur

19. The biography of Shaikh Muinuddin Chishti, authored by Jahanara, is known as
(a) Munis al Arwah
(b) Fawaid ul Fuwad
(c) Sirat ul Auliya
(d) Muraqqa-e Dehli

20. Which one of the following is not a political method of the moderates in the National Movement ?
(a) Overthrow of alien rule
(b) Constitutional agitation
(c) Slow, orderly political progress
(d) Mobilisation of public opinion

The post UPSC CDS 2 Exam 14 Nov 2021 Paper (General Knowledge) (Answer Key) appeared first on TheExamPillar -Uttarakhand .

Exam – UPSC (IAS/IFS) Pre 2021
Subject – Paper – I – General Studies (GS) 
Date of Exam – 10 October 2021
Total Questions – 100
BOOKLET SERIES – A

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UPSC IAS (CSE) Pre Exam 2021
Paper – I (General Studies)
(Answer Key) 

1. Consider the following statements :
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

2. With reference to casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements :
1. All casual workers are entitled for Employees Provident Fund coverage.
2. All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment.
3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

3. Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?
(a) Cut in tax rates accompanied by increase in interest rate
(b) Increase in expenditure on public projects
(c) Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate
(d) Reduction of expenditure on public projects

4. Consider the following statements :
Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if
1. price of its substitute increases
2. price of its complement increases
3. the good is an inferior good and income of the consumers increases
4. its price falls
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3

5. With reference to “Urban Cooperative Banks” in India, consider the following statements :
1. They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments.
2. They can issue equity shares and preference shares.
3. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1966.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

6. Indian Government Bond Yields are influenced by which of the following?
1. Actions of the United States Federal Reserve
2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India interest
3. Inflation and short-term rates
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

7. Consider the following:
1. Foreign currency convertible bonds
2. Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions
3. Global depository receipts
4. Non-resident external deposits
Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

8. Consider the following statements :
The effect of devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily
1. improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets
2. increases the foreign value of domestic currency
3. improves the trade balance
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3

9. Which one of the following effects of creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India?
(a) Diversion of resources to the purchase of real estate and investment in luxury housing
(b) Investment in unproductive activities and purchase of precious stones, jewellery, gold, etc.
(c) Large donations to political parties and growth of regionalism
(d) Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion

10. Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects?
(a) Repayment of public debt
(b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
(c) Borrowing from the banks to finance a budget deficit
(d) Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit

11. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
(a) Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks
(b) Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks
(c) Increase in the banking habit of the people
(d) Increase in the population of the country

12. With reference to Indian economy, demand-pull inflation can be caused/ increased by which of the following?
1. Expansionary policies
2. Fiscal stimulus
3. Inflation-indexing wages
4. Higher purchasing power
5. Rising interest rates
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

13. With reference to India, consider the following statements :
1. Retail investors through demat account can invest in “Treasury Bills” and “Government of India Debt Bonds” in primary market.
2. The “Negotiated Dealing System Order Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India.
3. The Central Depository Services Ltd. is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3

14. With reference to ‘Water Credit’, consider the following statements :
1. It puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector.
2. It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization and the World Bank.
3. It aims to enable the poor people to meet their water needs without depending on subsidies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

15. In India, the central bank’s function as the ‘lender of last resort’ usually refers to which of the following?
1. Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources
2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis
3. Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

16. “R2 Code of Practices” constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of
(a) environmentally responsible practices in electronics recycling industry
(b) ecological management of ‘Wetlands of International Importance’ under the Ramsar Convention
(c) sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands
(d) Environmental Impact Assessment in the exploitation of natural resources

17. Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?
1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into environment.
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into environment.
3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

18. With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements :
1. It is a product of oil refineries.
2. Some industries use it to generate power.
3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into environment.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

19. What is blue carbon?
(a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems
(b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils
(c) Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas
(d) Carbon present in atmosphere

20. In the nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil?
1. Fern
2. Lichen
3. Moss
4. Mushroom
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4

The post UPSC (IAS) Preliminary Exam 10 Oct 2021 – Paper 1 (General Studies) Answer Key appeared first on TheExamPillar -Uttarakhand .

Exam – UPSC EPFO EO/AO Exam 2021
Exam Date – 05^th September 2021
BOOKLET SERIES – C

Read Also –

UPSC EPFO EO/AO Exam Paper 2021
Paper – General Studies

PART – A

Antonyms

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by your words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

1. She always organises lavish parties on birthdays.
(a) frugal
(b) decent
(c) cheap
(d) strange

2. The soldier was greatly praised for his valour.
(a) clumsiness
(b) cowardice
(c) selfishness
(d) tactlessness

3. These regions are very fertile.
(a) sterile
(b) arid
(c) barren
(d) productive

4. Some sick immigrants were detained at the airport.
(a) settlers
(b) natives
(c) vagabonds
(d) foreigners

5. The questions were so elementary that anyone could pass the test.
(a) unusual
(b) primary
(c) naive
(d) advanced

Fill in the blanks

Directions : Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

6. It’s time you went out and ______ your own living.
(a) afforded
(b) earned
(c) gained
(d) won

7. The elephant fell into a _______ the hunters had set.
(a) track
(b) trap
(c) trick
(d) trunk

8. The dress isn’t really tight. It’ll ______when you’ve worn it.
(a) bend
(b) expand
(c) squeeze
(d) stretch

9. With his back to the old man, he stood at the window, fists clenched, and his shoulders ______ with his choked sobbing.
(a) shivered
(b) shook
(c) vibrated
(d) moved

10. The bereaved mother proudly received the gallantry award ______ her brave son who had laid down his life in the recent war.
(a) in the name of
(b) in lieu of
(c) on behalf of
(d) for the sake of

Spotting Errors

Directions : Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

11.
(a) Neither the servants
(b) nor the clerk
(c) has done this.
(b) No error

12.
(a) The car which went past us
(b) when we were driving on the highway
(c) must have been doing at least a hundred miles an hour.
(d) No error

13.
(a) Raju will be back home
(b) in an year
(c) after his stay abroad.
(d) No error

14.
(a) I have
(b) much work
(c) to do.
(d) No error.

15.
(a) Psychology did not develop into a science
(b) based of careful observation
(c) and experimentation until the late 1800s.
(d) No error.

Synonyms

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

16. Today the newspaper is full of carnage and violence.
(a) bloodshed
(b) lust
(c) concern
(d) satire

17. This religious gift, that makes men human, is still alive in Indian souls.
(a) mystical
(b) spiritual
(c) metaphysical
(d) philosophical

18. It is difficult for us to imagine how much this safety means to everyone.
(a) feel
(b) understand
(c) think
(d) see

19. Public service is not merely something that occupies the hours you are doing it, but invades all your life and experience and affects them in one way or the other.
(a) preserves
(b) demolishes
(c) covers
(d) spoils

20. He was in the early part of the twentieth century, a staunch nationalist of the liberal fold.
(a) profuse
(b) dogmatic
(c) plentiful
(b) tolerant

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