UPSC (Union Public Service Commission) Conduct the UPSC (IAS/IFS) Preliminary Exam 2022. This Paper held on 05 June 2022. UPSC General Studies (Paper – I) Full Paper With Answer Key available Here .
Exam – UPSC (IAS/IFS) Pre 2022
Subject – Paper – I – General Studies (GS)
Date of Exam – 05 June, 2021
Total Questions – 100
BOOKLET SERIES – A
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| UPSC IAS Pre Exam Paper – I (GS) 05 June 2022 (Answer Key) | Hindi Language |
UPSC IAS (CSE) Pre Exam 2022
Paper – I (General Studies)
(Answer Key)
1. “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following ? Rapid Credit Facility :
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
(d) World Bank
Click To Show Answer/Hide
Rapid Financing Instrument :
The RFI is a lending facility of the IMF that provides emergency assistance to member countries. The rapid financial assistance is provided with limited conditionality to all members facing an urgent balance of payments need. Access under the RFI is subject to an annual limit of 50% of quota and a cumulative limit of 100% of quota.
The Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) of IMF provides rapid concessional financial assistance to low-income countries (LICs) facing an urgent balance of payments (BoP) need with no ex post conditionality where a full-fledged economic program is neither necessary nor feasible.
2. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) land 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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Statement 1 is correct :- NEER is a measure of the value of a currency against a weighted average of several foreign currencies. An increase in NEER indicates an appreciation of the local currency against the weighted basket of currencies of its trading partners.
Statement 2 is not correct :- An increase in REER implies that exports become more expensive and imports become cheaper; therefore, an increase indicates a loss in trade competitiveness.
Statement 3 is correct :- An increase in domestic inflation when compared to inflation in other countries causes divergence between NEER and REER.
3. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :
1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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Statement 1 is incorrect: If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to sell government securities for sucking out liquidity from the market.
4. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements :
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Both statement 1 and 2 are correct :- The Common Framework for debt treatment beyond the DSSI (Common Framework) is an initiative endorsed by the G20, together with the Paris club to support, in a structural manner, Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.
5. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?
1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Click To Show Answer/Hide
Statement 1 is correct :- Government reduces the coupon rates on its borrowings by way of IIBs.
Statement 2 is correct :- Inflation Indexed Bonds (IIB) provide a continuous return to investors regardless of the amount of inflation in the economy.
Statement 3 is not correct :- Extant tax provisions will be applicable on interest payment and capital gains on IIBs. There will be no special tax treatment for these bonds.
6. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Statement 1 is not correct :- From February 1, 2019, e-commerce companies running marketplace platforms — such as Amazon and Flipkart cannot sell products through companies, and of companies, in which they hold equity stake.
Statement 2 is correct :- Etailers have maintained liability should be with sellers selling goods or services while they have their own internal checks.
7. Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy?
1. Farmers harvesting their crops
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company
4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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Constituents of real sector :- The real sector of the economy consists of enterprises (nonfinancial corporations), households and nonprofit institutions serving households.
8. Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India ?
(a) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment
(b) A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment
(c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India
(d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India
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Indirect transfers refer to situations where when foreign entities own shares or assets in India, the shares of such foreign entities are transferred instead of a direct transfer of the underlying assets in India.
9. With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Statement 1 is correct : – Capital Expenditure are one-time large purchases of fixed assets that will be used for revenue generation over a longer period. It includes expenditure on acquisition of land, building, machinery, loans and advances by central government to state and UTs, PSUs and other parties.
Statement 2 is not correct : – Debt Financing is considered revenue expenditure, while equity financing is considered capital expenditure.
10. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt:
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Statement 1 is correct :- Household savings is defined as the difference between a household’s disposable income and its consumption on goods and services. A share of household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
Statement 2 is correct :- Internal debt constitutes more than 94% of the overall public debt. Dated securities form 48.8% of Government’s Internal Debt.
11. Consider the following statements :
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 3 only
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Statement 1 is correct :- In 1961, a committee headed by H.N. Sanyal, an Additional Solicitor General for the Government of India, was appointed to examine the application of contempt laws in India. Pursuant to this report, Contempt of Courts act 1971 was passed.
Statement 2 is correct :- Article 129 of the Constitution conferred on the Supreme Court the power to punish contempt of itself. Article 215 conferred a corresponding power on the High Courts.
Statement 3 is not correct :- The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971
Section 2(b) provides ‘civil contempt’ means willful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ, or other processes of the court or willful breach of an undertaking given to the court.
Section 2 (c) provides criminal contempt means publication of any matter or doing of any act which: Scandalous Or Lowers The Authority Of The Court. Prejudice Or Interfere With The Due Course Of Any Judicial Proceedings. Interfere Or Obstructs The Administration Of Justice.
Statement 4 is correct :- The Parliament of India is vested with powers to make laws on Contempt of court. Consequent to this power, it has enacted Contempt of courts act, 1971.
12. With reference to India, consider the following statements :
1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Statement 1 is correct :- Law Graduates working in Corporate Fields are not eligible to appear in the courts of law. Thus Corporate Lawyers cannot be called Advocates.
Statement 2 is correct :- The Bar Council of India visits and inspects Universities/Law colleges in the country as part of its statutory function of promoting legal education and laying down standards in consultation with the Universities in India and the State Bar Councils.
13. Consider the following statements :
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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Statement 1 is not correct :- Constitution amendment bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.
Statement 2 is correct :- 24th constitutional amendment made it mandatory for the President to give his assent to the Constitutional Amendment bills.
Statement 3 is correct :- There is no provision for joint sitting for passage of the constitution amendment bill.
14. Consider the following statements :
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Statement 1 is not correct :- Constitution of India does not have any such classification of Ministers.
Statement 2 is correct :- 91st amendment act our Indian constitution, made a rule that the size of Council of Ministers including the Prime Minister would not exceed 15% of the total seat of Lok Sabha.
15. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ?
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
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In India, a motion of no confidence can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha (the lower house of the Parliament of India) and is admitted for discussion when at least 50 percent of members present and voting (Simple Majority) to support the motion (under Rule 198 of Lok Sabha Rules).
16. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements :
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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17. Consider the following statements :
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Conventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.
18. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements :
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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Unlike the other four writs, Quo warranto can be sought by anyone interested, not just the aggrieved party.
19. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements :
1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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20. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
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Statement 1 is correct :- The election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix and the Secretary shall send to every member notice of the date fixed.