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UPSC Civil Services Prelims Exam 2022 Answer Key

UPSC Civil Services Prelims Exam Paper I (General Studies) 05 June 2022 (Answer Key)

Posted on June 5, 2022June 5, 2022 by Senior Editor

61. Consider the following statements that :
1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Click To Show Answer/Hide

Answer – (A)

Statement 3 is incorrect :- A depreciation of the domestic currency will lead to an increase in the value of foreign currency debts in domestic currency terms. Thus, devaluation increases the currency risk associated with ECBs.
Thus, Option A is correct.

62. Consider the following States :
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Tripura
How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?
(a) Only one State
(b) Only two States
(c) Only three States
(d) All four States

Click To Show Answer/Hide

Answer – (C)

Andhra Pradesh is generally not a tea producing state. Other states are producing tea which can be seen in the above image.

63. Consider the following statements :
1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.
2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Click To Show Answer/Hide

Answer – (B)

Statement 1 is incorrect :- Credit rating agencies are regulated by SEBI. The SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999 govern the credit rating agencies and provide for eligibility criteria for registration of credit rating agencies, monitoring and review of ratings, requirements for a proper rating process, avoidance of conflict of interest and inspection of rating agencies by SEBI, amongst other things.
Thus, Option B is correct.

64. With reference to the Banks Board Bureau (BBB), which of the following statements are correct?
1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.
3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Click To Show Answer/Hide

Answer – (B)

Statement 1 is incorrect :- The chairman of BBB is not necessarily the RBI Governor. Current Chairman of BBB is Bhanu Pratap Sharma who is not an RBI Governor.
Thus, Option B is correct.
Elimination Technique.

65. With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements :
1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Click To Show Answer/Hide

Answer – (C)

Statement 1 is correct :- Convertible bonds are a flexible financing option for companies. A convertible bond offers investors a type of hybrid security, which has features of a bond such as interest payments while also providing the opportunity of owning the stock. Due to the option to convert the bond into common stock, they offer a lower coupon rate.
Statement 2 is correct:
Thus, Option C is correct.

66. Consider the following:
1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
2. Missile Technology Control Regime
3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
India is a member of which of the above ?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Click To Show Answer/Hide

Answer – (D)

Statement 1 is correct :- It is a multilateral development bank with a mission to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia. It aims to connect people, services and markets that over time will impact the lives of billions and build a better future by investing in sustainable infrastructure and other productive sectors. China is its biggest shareholder and India is the second-largest.

Statement 2 is correct :- India was inducted into the Missile Technology Control Regime in 2016 as the 35th member.

Statement 3 is correct :- The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) was established as a multilateral association to ensure security and maintain stability across the vast Eurasian region. It envisages joining forces to counteract emerging challenges and threats, and enhance trade, as well as cultural and humanitarian cooperation. It was created in 2001. Prior to the creation of SCO in 2001, Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyzstan, Russia and Tajikistan were members of the Shanghai Five. India and Pakistan became members in 2017.
Thus, Option D is correct.

67. Consider the following statements :
1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years.
2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system.
3. Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
4. For a long time Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.
5. Vietnam e-service has the most productive sector in the Indo-Pacific region.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 5
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2

Click To Show Answer/Hide

Answer – (C)

Statement 1 is correct :- Vietnam is the fastest growing world economy with a growth rate of 7.31% in 2019. It has surpassed the growth rate of other Asian economies including India and China, which stand at 4.5% and 6% CAGR respectively. The primary factor contributing to this massive leap in Vietnam’s economic growth is the amount of Foreign Direct Investment coming in from investors around the world, especially the Republic of Korea, Japan, and Singapore. Almost 68% of the total FDI capital was invested in the manufacturing industry and 10.4% in real estate.

Statement 2 is incorrect :- Vietnam is a Marxist–Leninist one party state based on democratic centralism.  This means that only one political party, the Communist Party of Vietnam (Đảng Cộng Sản Việt Nam) is legally allowed to hold effective power. Vietnamese elections conform to the popular front principle used in communist countries.

Statement 5 is incorrect:
Thus, Option C is correct.

68. In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation ?
(a) Department of Consumer Affairs
(b) Expenditure Management Commission
(c) Financial Stability and Development Council
(d) Reserve Bank of India

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Answer – (D)

The primary objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. Price stability is a necessary precondition to sustainable growth.

In May 2016, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework.
Option D is correct.

69. With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements :
1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.
3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Click To Show Answer/Hide

Answer – (A)

Statement 3 is incorrect :- Non-fungible tokens (NFTs) are cryptographic assets on a blockchain with unique identification codes and metadata that distinguish them from each other. Unlike cryptocurrencies, they cannot be traded or exchanged at equivalency. This differs from fungible tokens like cryptocurrencies, which are identical to each other and, therefore, can serve as a medium for commercial transactions.
Thus, Option A is correct.

70. Consider the following pairs:
.  Reservoirs – States
1. Ghataprabha – Telangana
2. Gandhi Sagar – Madhya Pradesh
3. Indira Sagar – Andhra Pradesh
4. Maithon – Chhattisgarh
How many pairs given above are not correctly matched ?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs

Click To Show Answer/Hide

Answer – (C)

  • Ghataprabha – Karnataka
  • Gandhi Sagar – Madhya Pradesh
  • Indira Sagar – Madhya Pradesh
  • Maithon – Jharkhand

Thus, Option C is correct.

71. In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers ?
(a) Central Statistics Office
(b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
(c) Labour Bureau
(d) National Technical Manpower Information System

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Answer – (C)

72. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)?
1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
3. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Click To Show Answer/Hide

Answer – (C)

Functions and responsibilities of CCO: (As per Indian Year Book)

  • Inspection of collieries so as to ensure the correctness of the class, grade or size of coal.
  • To issue directives for the purpose of declaration and maintenance of grades of coal of a seam mined in a colliery.
  • To act as the appellate authority in case of dispute between consumers and owner arising out of declaration of grade and size of coal.
  • To regulate disposal of stock of coal or the expected output of coal in the colliery.
  • Quality surveillance with respect to maintenance of grade, loading of coal in wagons/trucks according to laid down procedures regarding grades and sizes.
  • To grant opening / re-opening permission of coal mine, seam or a section of seam or to sub-divide a mine.
  • Assessment and collection of excise duty levied on all raw coal raised and dispatched.
  • Submission of monthly coal data to different ministries of central and state governments, national and international organisations.

Under Collection of Statistics Act, 2008 – Coal Controller has been made the statistical authority with respect to coal and lignite statistics. Entrusted the responsibility of carrying out Annual Coal & Lignite survey and publishing of Provisional Coal Statistics and Coal Directory of India.

As per the order below it does not entertain objections relation to commercial aspects.

73. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

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Answer – (A)

Constitutional provision under Schedule-V also provide for safeguards against displacement of tribal population because of land acquisition etc. The Governor of the State which has scheduled Areas is empowered to prohibit or restrict transfer of land from tribals and regulate he allotment of land to members of the Scheduled Tribes in such cases. Land being a State subject, various provisions of rehabilitation and resettlement as per the RFCTLARR Act, 2013 are implemented by the concerned State Governments.

74. Consider the following statements :
1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Click To Show Answer/Hide

Answer – (D)

Statement 1 is incorrect :- The India Sanitation Coalition was launched on June 25, 2015, at FICCI, New Delhi. ISC is a multi stakeholder platform that brings together the private sector, government, financial institutions, civil society groups, media, donors/bilateral/multilateral, experts etc. to work in the sanitation space to drive sustainable sanitation through a partnership model.

Statement 2 is incorrect :- The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is India’s leading national think tank on urban planning and development. As a hub for generation and dissemination of cutting-edge research in the urban sector, NIUA seeks to provide innovative solutions to address the challenges of a fast urbanising India, and pave the way for more inclusive and sustainable cities of the future.

NIUA although gets support from MoHUA but it doesn’t fall under MoHUA.

75. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ?
(a) Central Water Commission
(b) Central Ground Water Board
(c) Central Ground Water Authority
(d) National Water Development Agency

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Answer – (C)

Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted under subsection (3) of Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for the purposes of regulation and control of ground water development and management in the country. The Authority is engaged in various activities related to regulation of ground water development to ensure its long-term sustainability.
Option C is correct.

76. With reference to the United Nations Credentials Committee, consider the following statements :
1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.
3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

Click To Show Answer/Hide

Answer – (A)

Credentials Committee

A Credentials Committee is appointed at the beginning of each regular session of the General Assembly. It consists of nine members, who are appointed by the General Assembly on the proposal of the President.

The Committee reports to the Assembly on the credentials of representatives.

Structure and Functions

The credentials of representatives and the names of members of the delegation of each Member State are submitted to the Secretary-General and are issued either by the Head of the State or Government or by the Minister for Foreign Affairs (Rule 27 of the Rules of Procedure of the General Assembly).

The Committee is mandated to examine the credentials of representatives of Member States and to report to the General Assembly thereon (Rule 28 of the Rules of Procedure of the General Assembly).
Thus, Option A is correct.

77. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?
(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.
(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.
(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.

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Answer – (A)

The Polar Code is intended to cover the full range of shipping related matters relevant to navigation in waters surrounding the two poles – ship design, construction and equipment; operational and training concerns; search and rescue; and, equally important, the protection of the unique environment and eco-systems of the polar regions.

The Polar Code includes mandatory measures covering safety part (part I-A) and pollution prevention (part II-A) and recommendatory provisions for both (parts I-B and II-B).
Thus, Option A is correct.

78. With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements :
1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.
2. Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Click To Show Answer/Hide

Answer – (D)

The United Nations General Assembly may grant non-member states, international organizations and other entities Permanent Observer Status.

The UN Charter and the General Assembly Rules of Procedure have no provisions related to granting permanent observer status.

The process is described in a legal opinion of 15 August 2008, published in the 2008 United Nations Juridical Yearbook, p. 438 (in English), part B, paragraphs 8-11. The legal opinion cites decision 49/426 of 19 December 1994, (attached) in which the General Assembly decided that observer status would be confined to States and intergovernmental organizations whose activities cover matters of interest to the Assembly.

In paragraph 2 of General Assembly resolution 54/195, (linked below), the Sixth Committee of the General Assembly considers all applications for observer status before they are considered in the plenary session.

Permanent Observers may participate in the sessions and workings of the General Assembly and maintain missions at the UN Headquarters.
Thus, Option D is correct.

79. With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements :
1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.
Which of the statements given above are correct? :
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

Click To Show Answer/Hide

Answer – (D)

Tea Board was set up as a statutory body on 1st April, 1954 as per Section (4) of the Tea Act, 1953. As an apex body, it looks after the overall development of the tea industry. The Board consists of 32 Members, including Chairman and Deputy Chairman appointed by the Government of India representing different sections of the Tea industry. The Board’s Head Office is situated in Kolkata and there are two Zonal offices-one each in North Eastern Region at Jorhat in Assam and in Southern Region at Coonoor in Tamil Nadu. Besides, there are 18 regional offices spread over in all the major tea growing states and four metros. For the purpose of tea promotion, three overseas offices are located at London, Dubai and Moscow.
Thus, Option D is correct.

80. Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?
(a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country
(c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development ructure development
(d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme

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Answer – (A)

Greenwashing is the process of conveying a false impression or providing misleading information about how a company’s products are more environmentally sound. Greenwashing is considered an unsubstantiated claim to deceive consumers into believing that a company’s products are environmentally friendly.
Thus, Option A is correct.

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