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UPSC Civil Services Prelims Exam 2022 Answer Key

UPSC Civil Services Prelims Exam Paper I (General Studies) 05 June 2022 (Answer Key)

Posted on June 5, 2022June 5, 2022 by Senior Editor

41. “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:
(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations
(b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
(c) Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”
(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

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Answer – (A)

Climate Action Tracker – It is an independent scientific analysis that tracks climate actions of governments. It then measures it against the Paris Agreement. It is a collaboration of two organisations, New Climate Institute and Climate Analytics.

42. Consider the following statements :
1. “The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”.
3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

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Answer – (B)

EP100 is a global initiative led by the international nonprofit Climate Group, bringing together over 120 energy smart businesses committed to measuring and reporting on energy efficiency improvements.

Energy efficiency is essential as it can deliver over 40% of the reduction in energy related emissions needed to achieve global climate goals. Taking energy efficiency from the boiler room to the boardroom, members are reducing emissions whilst improving competitiveness and inspiring others to follow their lead.

Mahindra & Mahindra becomes first company to join EP100.

IEA has no link with EP100. EP100 is coalition to Climate change groups. EP100 works on same objectives of IEA but IEA has no role in EP100.

Since Statement 2 is eliminated the answer is B

43. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement ?
(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
(b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.
(c) Wetlands play a vital role in To maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

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Answer – (D)

Function of Kidney is to remove waste and toxins, excess water from the bloodstream, which is carried out of the body in urine. With the above analogy, you need to pick that function of wetlands which fits with above analogy.

Option A is NOT correct :- as it is talking about wetland water cycle.

Option B is not correct :- as it is talking about algae which is becoming food for others, here this does not indicate role of Wetlands as Kidney.

Option C is not correct :- This may sound appealing for those who have just focused on the word “balance”, but mind you, kidney role is to remove excess waste.

Option D is Correct :- In this option, UPSC talked about wetland function as removing excess “waste”.

44. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements :
1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 μg/m2 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 μg/m3
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
Which of the statements correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2 only

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Answer – (B)

While particles with a diameter of 10 microns or less, (≤ PM10) can penetrate and lodge deep inside the lungs, the even more health damaging particles are those with a diameter of 2.5 microns or less, (≤ PM2.5). PM2.5 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the blood system.

Key Points:  WHO’s new guidelines recommend air quality levels for six pollutants — particulate matter (PM 2.5 & PM10), ozone (O₃), nitrogen dioxide (NO₂) sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and carbon monoxide (CO).

  • The annual average for PM2.5 should not exceed 5 micrograms per cubic metre of air, while the 24-hour average shouldnot exceed 15 micrograms per cubic metre.
  • The annual average for PM 10 should not exceed 15 micrograms per cubic metre of air, while the 24-hour average should not exceed 45 micrograms per cubic metre.
  • The ozone levels average should not exceed 100 micrograms per cubic metre over a 24-hour period.
  • The nitrogen oxide levels should not exceed 25 micrograms per cubic metre over a 24-hour period.
  • The sulphur dioxide levels should not exceed 40 micrograms per cubic metre over a 24-hour period.
  • The carbon monoxide levels should not exceed 4 micrograms per cubic metre over a 24-hour period.

45. With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements :
1. It is a fungus.
2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

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Answer – (C)

A geographical indication (GI) tag has been sought for one of the costliest mushrooms in the world that grows in Jammu and Kashmir’s Doda district.
Guchhi mushroom is a species of fungus in the family Morchellaceae of the Ascomycota.

46. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:
1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3

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Answer – (D)

Polyethylene Terephthalate Properties

  • Crystal clear polymer – It is a crystal clear polymer with good purity and healthy. You must have seen the sparkling PET bottles with brilliant glass-clear presentation attract us.
  • Purity – The products of PET taste good and comply with international food contact regulations.
  • Safe – The objects made from PET like bottles are tough and virtually unbreakable therefore can be easily used for storage and transportation. This polymer has a high impact and tensile strength that makes it ideal for carbonated products.
  • Good barrier – PET products have low permeability to oxygen, carbon dioxide and water, therefore, it maintains the integrity of products with good shelf life.
  • Lightweight – The lightweight of PET products reduce the shipping costs compared to glass products.
    No Leakage and damage – Due to the absence of weld line in the base, PET bottles are free from leakage and damage.
  • Recyclable – PET polymer is recyclable and can be reshaped in different shapes.
  • Good resistance power – PET products have good resistance against different chemicals such as acids, bases, etc.

47. Which of the following is not a bird ?
(a) Golden Mahseer
(b) Indian Nightjar
(c) Spoonbill
(d) White Ibis

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Answer – (A)

Golden mahseer is known as the tiger of Indian rivers. It has been declared endangered by the Washington-based International Union of Conservation of Natural Resources. The mahseer, the longest-living freshwater fish, is native to mountain and sub-mountain regions. It belongs to the genus Tor. The Pong Dam reservoir, around 250km from state capital Shimla and 190km from Chandigarh, supports an ample population of the golden mahseer.

48. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?
1. Alfalfa
2. Amaranth
3. Chickpea
4. Clover
5. Purslane (Kulfa)
6. Spinach
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6

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Answer – (A)

Alfalfa fixes more nitrogen than any legume crop. In fact, a stand can fix as much as 300 pounds of N per acre per year. It uses much of this nitrogen to produce protein in the plant, which growers can harvest and feed to livestock. Chickpea and faba bean provide many benefits in northern cropping rotations, including the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen (N2), resulting in more soil N for following cereal crops. The amount of nitrogen fixed is determined by how well the pulse crop grows and the level of nitrate in the soil at planting. The advantage of red clover is that it is a very vigorous crop capable of fixing up to 250kg/ha of nitrogen in its first full year.

USE ELIMINATION METHOD SPINACH IS NOT A LEGUME PLANT

49. “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations ?
(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs
(b) Development of building materials using plant residues.
(c) Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas
(d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas

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Answer – (A)

Mineral Accretion Technology Also called ‘Biorock Technology’, it is a method that applies safe, low voltage electrical currents through seawater, causing dissolved minerals to crystallize on structures, growing into a white limestone (CaCo3) similar to that which naturally makes up coral reefs and tropical white sand beaches.
Biorock, also known as Seacrete or Seament, refers to the substance formed by electro accumulation of minerals dissolved in seawater.
The formed material has a strength similar to concrete. It can be used to make robust artificial reefs on which corals grow at very rapid rates.
Fragments of broken corals are tied to the biorock structure, where they are able to grow at least four to six times faster than their actual growth as they need not spend their energy in building their own calcium carbonate skeletons.
The technology also helps corals, including the highly sensitive branching corals, to counter the threats posed by global warming.

50. The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:
(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
(b) Development of gardens using genetically modified floral
(c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
(d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces

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Answer – (C)

Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki endowed the Miyawaki technique to create dense forests with native plants. This unique method is used worldwide for urban afforestation by growing a forest in someone’s backyard.
It includes planting trees as close as possible in the same area which not only saves space, but the planted saplings also support each other in growth and block sunlight from reaching the ground, thereby preventing the growth of weed. Thus the saplings become maintenance-free (self-sustainable) after the first three years.
It helps to create a forest in just 20 to 30 years while through conventional methods it takes anywhere between 200 to 300 years.

51. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects ?
1. Administration of Justice
2. Local Self-Government
3. Land Revenue
4. Police
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4

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Answer – (C)

Division of Subjects :- Subjects were divided into two lists: ‘reserved’ and ‘transferred’.
The reserved list, under which the subjects were to be administered by the governor through his executive council of bureaucrats.
It included subjects such as law and order, finance, land revenue, irrigation etc.
All important subjects were kept in the reserved subjects of the Provincial Executive.
The transferred subjects were to be administered by ministers nominated from among the elected members of the legislative council.
It included subjects such as education, health, local government, industry, agriculture, excise, etc.
In case of failure of constitutional machinery in the province the governor could take over the administration of transferred subjects also.
USE ELIMINATION METHOD AS LOCAL SELF GOVERNMENT COMES UNDER TRANSFERRED SUBJECTS HENCE OPTION C IS ONLY CORRECT CHOICE.

52. In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to :
(a) Clothing
(b) Coins
(c) Ornaments
(d) Weapons

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Answer – (B)

A small gold or silver coin formerly in widespread use in southern India.

53. Consider the following freedom fighters :
1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
3. Rash Behari Bose
Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

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Answer – (D)

The Ghadar Party was an international political movement consisting of expatriate Indians to overthrow British rule in India. The official founding has been dated to a meeting on 15 July 1913 in Astoria, Oregon, the United States of America.

Barindra Kumar Ghosh, the younger brother of Sri Aurobindo Ghosh, was an Indian revolutionary and journalist. Being born in England, he received education in Deoghar and military training from Baroda. He was highly influenced by Aurobindo and thus, joined the revolutionary movement. Since he is in UK, so he is eliminated.

Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee was an Indian freedom fighter, revolutionary and member of Rajya Sabha.

So he is also eliminated. So the correct answer is D

54. With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements :
1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer – (B)

Proposals of Cripps Mission Setting up of an Indian dominion. This dominion would have the freedom to remain with the British Commonwealth or to secede from it. It would also be at liberty to take part in international organisations.

A Constituent Assembly would be formed to frame a new constitution for the country. This Assembly would have members elected by the provincial assemblies and also nominated by the princes.
Any province which wouldn’t accept the new constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with the British. The transfer of power and the rights of minorities would be safeguarded by negotiations between the Constituent Assembly and the British government. In the meantime, until this new constitution came into force, India’s defence would be controlled by the British and the powers of the Governor-General would remain unaltered.

Gandhi called Cripps Mission ‘A postdated cheque drawn on a failing bank’ due to the Cripps offer of Dominion Status after the war.

55. With reference to Indian history, consider the da following texts :
1. Nettipakarana
2. Parishishtaparvan
3. Avadanashataka
4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana
Which of the above are Jaina texts ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

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Answer – (B)

The Nettipakarana is a Buddhist scripture, sometimes included in the Khuddaka Nikaya of Theravada Buddhism’s Pali Canon.

The Parishishtaparvan also known as the Sthaviravalicharitra is a 12th-century Sanskrit mahakavya by Hemachandra which details the histories of the earliest Jain teachers.

The Avadanasataka or “Century of Noble Deeds (Avadana)” is an anthology in Sanskrit of one hundred Buddhist legends, approximately dating to the same time as the Ashokavadana. Ratnamalavadana. The work may be from the Mulasarvastivada school.

Mahapurana or Trishashthilkshana Mahapurana is a major Jain text composed largely by Acharya Jinasena during the rule of Rashtrakuta ruler Amoghavarsha and completed by his pupil Gunabhadra in the 9th century CE.
Mahapurana consists of two parts. The first part is Adi purāṇa written by Acharya Jinasena. The second part is Uttarapurana which is the section composed by Gunabhadra. 

56. With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs :

Historical person  Known as
1. Aryadeva  Jaina scholar
2. Dignaga  Buddhist scholar
3. Nathamuni  Vaishnava scholar

How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?
(a) None of the pairs
(b) Only one pair
(c) Only two pairs
(d) All three pairs

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Answer – (C)

Aryadeva and Dignaga are buddhist scholar While Nathamuni is a vaishnava scholar.

57. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements :
1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

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Answer – (B)

58. With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as “Kulah-Daran”?
(a) Arab merchants
(b) Qalandars
(c) Persian calligraphists
(d) Sayyids

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Answer – (D)

59. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements :
1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.
3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – (B)

Statement 1 is Incorrect :-  Gajapati rulers ruled from 1434–1541, while the Dutch founded their first factory in Masaulipatam in Andhra Pradesh in 1605.

Statement 2 is correct :- In 1510 AD, Afonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur, Ismail Adil Shah with the help of Krishnadev raya (ruler of Vijaynagar empire). He is also known to have abolished the practice of Sati in Goa.

Statement 3 is correct :- On 22 August 1639, English official Francis Day obtained a grant of a 3-mile-long strip of land for the East India Company from the local ruler, Damarla Venkatadri Nayaka, the Nayaka of Wandiwash. (Part of Vijaynagar empire)

60. According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, which of the following are correct ?
1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.
2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.
3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master’s son
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – (D)

Statement 1 is correct :- Correct from the given below source:
Bonded Labour in India: A Socio-Legal Study by Rish Nainta.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct :- ‘The Penguin History of Early India’ by Romila Thapar.

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