{"id":690,"date":"2022-06-05T16:03:38","date_gmt":"2022-06-05T10:33:38","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/theexampillar.com\/ukgk\/?p=690"},"modified":"2022-06-05T23:26:26","modified_gmt":"2022-06-05T17:56:26","slug":"upsc-civil-services-prelims-exam-paper-i-general-studies-05-june-2022-answer-key","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/theexampillar.com\/ukgk\/upsc-civil-services-prelims-exam-paper-i-general-studies-05-june-2022-answer-key\/","title":{"rendered":"UPSC Civil Services Prelims Exam Paper I (General Studies) 05 June 2022 (Answer Key)"},"content":{"rendered":"

UPSC (Union Public Service Commission) Conduct the UPSC (IAS\/IFS) Preliminary Exam 2022. This Paper held on 05 June 2022. UPSC General Studies (Paper – I) Full Paper With Answer Key available Here .\u00a0<\/span><\/p>\n

Exam – <\/strong>UPSC (IAS\/IFS) Pre 2022
\n<\/strong>Subject – <\/strong>Paper – I – General Studies (GS)\u00a0
\n<\/strong>Date of Exam – <\/strong>05 June, 2021
\nTotal Questions –\u00a0<\/strong>100
\nBOOKLET SERIES –<\/strong> A<\/span><\/p>\n

Read Also<\/strong> –<\/span> <\/span><\/p>\n\n\n\n
UPSC IAS Pre Exam Paper – I (GS) 05 June 2022 (Answer Key)<\/strong><\/span><\/td>\nHindi Language<\/strong><\/a><\/span><\/td>\n<\/tr>\n<\/tbody>\n<\/table>\n

UPSC IAS (CSE) Pre Exam 2022
\nPaper – I (General Studies)
\n(Answer Key)\u00a0<\/strong><\/span><\/h2>\n

1. \u201cRapid Financing Instrument\u201d and \u201cRapid Credit Facility\u201d are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following ?<\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) Asian Development Bank <\/span>
\n(b) International Monetary Fund <\/span>
\n(c) United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative<\/span>
\n(d) World Bank<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (B)<\/strong>
\nRapid Financing Instrument :
\n<\/strong>The RFI is a lending facility of the IMF that provides emergency assistance to member countries. The rapid financial assistance is provided with limited conditionality to all members facing an urgent balance of payments need. Access under the RFI is subject to an annual limit of 50% of quota and a cumulative limit of 100% of quota.<\/span><\/p>\n

Rapid Credit Facility :
\n<\/strong>The Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) of IMF provides rapid concessional financial assistance to low-income countries (LICs) facing an urgent balance of payments (BoP) need with no ex post conditionality where a full-fledged economic program is neither necessary nor feasible.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

2. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:<\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.<\/span>
\n2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. <\/span>
\n3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. <\/span>
\nWhich of the above statements are correct ? <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) 1 and 2 only<\/span>
\n(b) 2 and 3 only<\/span>
\n(c) land 3 only <\/span>
\n(d) 1, 2 and 3<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (C)<\/strong>
\nStatement 1 is correct :- <\/strong>NEER is a measure of the value of a currency against a weighted average of several foreign currencies. An increase in NEER indicates an appreciation of the local currency against the weighted basket of currencies of its trading partners.
\nStatement 2 is not <\/strong>correct :-<\/strong> An increase in REER implies that exports become more expensive and imports become cheaper; therefore, an increase indicates a loss in trade competitiveness.
\nStatement 3 is correct :-\u00a0 <\/strong>An increase in domestic inflation when compared to inflation in other countries causes divergence between NEER and REER.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

3. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :<\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. <\/span>
\n2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. <\/span>
\n3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. <\/span>
\nWhich of the statements given above are correct? <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) 1 and 2 only <\/span>
\n(b) 2 and 3 only <\/span>
\n(c) 1 and 3 only <\/span>
\n(d) 1, 2 and 3<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (B)<\/strong>
\nStatement 1 is incorrect:<\/strong> If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to sell government securities for sucking out liquidity from the market.<\/span><\/div><\/div><\/span><\/span><\/p>\n

4. With reference to the \u201cG20 Common Framework\u201d, consider the following statements : <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. <\/span>
\n2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.<\/span>
\nWhich of the statements given above is\/are correct? <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) 1 only <\/span>
\n(b) 2 only <\/span>
\n(c) Both 1 and 2<\/span>
\n(d) Neither 1 nor 2<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (C)
\nBoth statement 1 and 2 are correct :-<\/strong> The Common Framework for debt treatment beyond the DSSI (Common Framework) is an initiative endorsed by the G20, together with the Paris club to support, in a structural manner, Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

5. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of \u201cInflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)\u201d?<\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. <\/span>
\n2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. <\/span>
\n3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. <\/span>
\nWhich of the statements given above are correct? <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) 1 and 2 only<\/span>
\n(b) 2 and 3 only <\/span>
\n(c) 1 and 3 only <\/span>
\n(d) 1, 2 and 3<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (A)<\/strong>
\nStatement 1 is correct :-<\/strong> Government reduces the coupon rates on its borrowings by way of IIBs.
\nStatement 2 is correct :-<\/strong> Inflation Indexed Bonds (IIB) provide a continuous return to investors regardless of the amount of inflation in the economy.
\nStatement 3 is not correct :-<\/strong> Extant tax provisions will be applicable on interest payment and capital gains on IIBs. There will be no special tax treatment for these bonds.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

6. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is\/are correct ? <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. <\/span>
\n2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. <\/span>
\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below: <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) 1 only <\/span>
\n(b) 2 only <\/span>
\n(c) Both 1 and 2<\/span>
\n(d) Neither 1 nor 2<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (B)<\/strong>
\nStatement 1 is not <\/strong>correct :-<\/strong> From February 1, 2019, e-commerce companies running marketplace platforms \u2014 such as Amazon and Flipkart cannot sell products through companies, and of companies, in which they hold equity stake.
\nStatement 2 is <\/strong>correct :-<\/strong> Etailers have maintained liability should be with sellers selling goods or services while they have their own internal checks.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

7. Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy? <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n1. Farmers harvesting their crops <\/span>
\n2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics <\/span>
\n3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company <\/span>
\n4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas <\/span>
\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below : <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) 1 and 2 only <\/span>
\n(b) 2, 3 and 4 only <\/span>
\n(c) 1,3 and 4 only <\/span>
\n(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (A)<\/strong>
\nConstituents of real sector :-<\/strong> The real sector of the economy consists of enterprises (nonfinancial corporations), households and nonprofit institutions serving households.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

8. Which one of the following situations best reflects \u201cIndirect Transfers\u201d often talked about in media recently with reference to India ? <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment <\/span>
\n(b) A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment <\/span>
\n(c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India <\/span>
\n(d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India <\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (D)<\/strong>
\nIndirect transfers<\/strong> refer to situations where when foreign entities own shares or assets in India, the shares of such foreign entities are transferred instead of a direct transfer of the underlying assets in India.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

9. With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is\/are correct ? <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.<\/span>
\n2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure. <\/span>
\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below :<\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) 1 only<\/span>
\n(b) 2 only<\/span>
\n(c) Both 1 and 2<\/span>
\n(d) Neither 1 nor 2<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (A)<\/strong>
\nStatement 1 is correct : –<\/strong> Capital Expenditure are one-time large purchases of fixed assets that will be used for revenue generation over a longer period. It includes expenditure on acquisition of land, building, machinery, loans and advances by central government to state and UTs, PSUs and other parties.
\nStatement 2 is not <\/strong>correct : –<\/strong> Debt Financing is considered revenue expenditure, while equity financing is considered capital expenditure.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

10. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:<\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings. <\/span>
\n2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt:<\/span>
\nWhich of the above statements is\/are correct ? <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) 1 only<\/span>
\n(b) 2 only<\/span>
\n(c) Both 1 and 2<\/span>
\n(d) Neither 1 nor 2<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (C)<\/strong>
\nStatement 1 is correct :-<\/strong> Household savings is defined as the difference between a household’s disposable income and its consumption on goods and services. A share of household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
\nStatement 2 is correct :- <\/strong>Internal debt constitutes more than 94% of the overall public debt. Dated securities form 48.8% of Government\u2019s Internal Debt.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

11. Consider the following statements : <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. <\/span>
\n2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves. <\/span>
\n3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. <\/span>
\n4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court. <\/span>
\nWhich of the statements given above is\/are correct? <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) 1 and 2 only <\/span>
\n(b) 1, 2 and 4 <\/span>
\n(c) 3 and 4 only <\/span>
\n(d) 3 only<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (B)<\/strong>
\nStatement 1 is correct :-<\/strong> In 1961, a committee headed by H.N. Sanyal, an Additional Solicitor General for the Government of India, was appointed to examine the application of contempt laws in India. Pursuant to this report, Contempt of Courts act 1971 was passed.
\nStatement 2 is correct :-\u00a0 <\/strong>Article 129 of the Constitution conferred on the Supreme Court the power to punish contempt of itself. Article 215 conferred a corresponding power on the High Courts.
\nStatement 3 is not correct :-<\/strong> The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971
\nSection 2(b) provides ‘civil contempt’ means willful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ, or other processes of the court or willful breach of an undertaking given to the court.
\nSection 2 (c) provides criminal contempt means publication of any matter or doing of any act which: Scandalous Or Lowers The Authority Of The Court. Prejudice Or Interfere With The Due Course Of Any Judicial Proceedings. Interfere Or Obstructs The Administration Of Justice.
\nStatement 4 is <\/strong>correct :-<\/strong> The Parliament of India is vested with powers to make laws on Contempt of court. Consequent to this power, it has enacted Contempt of courts act, 1971.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

12. With reference to India, consider the following statements : <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. <\/span>
\n2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. <\/span>
\nWhich of the statements given above is\/are correct? <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) 1 only <\/span>
\n(b) 2 only <\/span>
\n(c) Both 1 and 2 <\/span>
\n(d) Neither 1 nor 2<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (C)<\/strong>
\nStatement 1 is correct :-\u00a0<\/strong> Law Graduates working in Corporate Fields are not eligible to appear in the courts of law. Thus Corporate Lawyers cannot be called Advocates.
\nStatement 2 is correct :-<\/strong> The Bar Council of India visits and inspects Universities\/Law colleges in the country as part of its statutory function of promoting legal education and laying down standards in consultation with the Universities in India and the State Bar Councils.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

13. Consider the following statements : <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. <\/span>
\n2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his\/her assent. <\/span>
\n3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. <\/span>
\nWhich of the statements given above are correct? <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) 1 and 2 only<\/span>
\n(b) 2 and 3 only <\/span>
\n(c) 1 and 3 only <\/span>
\n(d) 1, 2 and 3<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (B)<\/strong>
\nStatement 1 is not correct :-<\/strong> Constitution amendment bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.
\nStatement 2 is correct :-<\/strong> 24th constitutional amendment made it mandatory for the President to give his assent to the Constitutional Amendment bills.
\nStatement 3 is correct :- <\/strong>There is no provision for joint sitting for passage of the constitution amendment bill.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

14. Consider the following statements : <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. <\/span>
\n2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. <\/span>
\nWhich of the statements given above is\/are correct? <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) 1 only <\/span>
\n(b) 2 only <\/span>
\n(c) Both 1 and 2 <\/span>
\n(d) Neither 1 nor 2<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (B)<\/strong>
\nStatement 1 is not correct :-<\/strong> Constitution of India does not have any such classification of Ministers.
\nStatement 2 is correct :-<\/strong> 91st amendment act our Indian constitution, made a rule that the size of Council of Ministers including the Prime Minister would not exceed 15% of the total seat of Lok Sabha.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

15. Which of the following is\/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ? <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency <\/span>
\n2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers<\/span>
\n3. To impeach the President of India <\/span>
\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below : <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) 1 and 2 <\/span>
\n(b) 2 only <\/span>
\n(c) 1 and 3 <\/span>
\n(d) 3 only<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (B)<\/strong>
\nIn India, a motion of no confidence can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha (the lower house of the Parliament of India) and is admitted for discussion when at least 50 percent of members present and voting (Simple Majority) to support the motion (under Rule 198 of Lok Sabha Rules).<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

16. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements : <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. <\/span>
\n2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. <\/span>
\nWhich of the statements given above is\/are correct? <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) 1 only <\/span>
\n(b) 2 only <\/span>
\n(c) Both 1 and 2 <\/span>
\n(d) Neither 1 nor 2 <\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (B)<\/strong><\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

17. Consider the following statements : <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. <\/span>
\n2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. <\/span>
\nWhich of the statements given above is\/are correct? <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) 1 only <\/span>
\n(b) 2 only <\/span>
\n(c) Both 1 and 2 <\/span>
\n(d) Neither 1 nor 2<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (D)<\/strong>
\nConventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

18. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements : <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty. <\/span>
\n2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company. <\/span>
\n3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. <\/span>
\nWhich of the statements given above are correct ? <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) 1 and 2 only <\/span>
\n(b) 2 and 3 only <\/span>
\n(c) 1 and 3 only <\/span>
\n(d) 1, 2 and 3<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (C)<\/strong>
\nUnlike the other four writs, Quo warranto can be sought by anyone interested, not just the aggrieved party.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

19. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements : <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it. <\/span>
\n2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. <\/span>
\n3. It has seamless portability across the country. <\/span>
\nWhich of the statements given above is\/are correct? <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) 1 and 2 only <\/span>
\n(b) 3 only <\/span>
\n(c) 1 and 3 only <\/span>
\n(d) 1, 2 and 3<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (D)<\/strong><\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

20. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements : <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. <\/span>
\n2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. <\/span>
\n3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. <\/span>
\n4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. <\/span>
\nWhich of the statements given above are correct? <\/span><\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) 1 and 3 only <\/span>
\n(b) 1, 2 and 3 <\/span>
\n(c) 3 and 4 only <\/span>
\n(d) 2 and 4 only<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (A)<\/strong>
\nStatement 1 is <\/strong>correct :-<\/strong> The election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix and the Secretary shall send to every member notice of the date fixed.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

<\/p>\n

21. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ?<\/span><\/strong>
\n(a) Cotton<\/span>
\n(b) Rice<\/span>
\n(c) Sugarcane <\/span>
\n(d) Wheat<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (B)<\/strong>
\n<\/span><\/p>\n

Rice paddies are considered one of the most important sources of CH4<\/sub> and N2<\/sub>O emissions, which have attracted considerable attention due to their contribution to global warming.<\/span><\/p>\n

CH4<\/sub> and N2<\/sub>O gases are simultaneously emitted from rice fields to the atmosphere due to their favorable production, consumption, and transport systems. The intensive rice farming system has been creating excessive pressure on rice fields.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

22. \u201cSystem of Rice Intensification\u201d of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in : <\/span><\/strong>
\n1. Reduced seed requirement <\/span>
\n2. Reduced methane production <\/span>
\n3. Reduced electricity consumption <\/span>
\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below : <\/span><\/strong>
\n(a) 1 and 2 only <\/span>
\n(b) 2 and 3 only <\/span>
\n(c) 1 and 3 only <\/span>
\n(d) 1, 2 and 3<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (D)<\/strong>
\n<\/span><\/p>\n

Statement 1 is correct :-<\/strong> SRI is not a standardised, fixed technological method. It is rather a set of ideas, a methodology for comprehensively managing and conserving resources by changing the way that land, seeds, water, nutrients, and human labour are used to increase productivity from a small but welltended number of seeds. The opportunity for making savings in electricity, groundwater, seeds, etc. can justify more robust planning efforts for the promotion of SRI with appropriate investments and strategy to address the sources of resistance to its adoption.<\/p>\n

Statement 2 is correct :-<\/strong> SRI relies mostly on organic fertilization, methane emissions are greatly reduced without offsetting increases in nitrous oxide.<\/p>\n

Statement 3 is correct :-\u00a0<\/strong> Case Study: Each hectare of SRI under tubewell irrigation in the Andhra Pradesh study area saved about 845 pumping hours in one season compared to the conventional paddy. This amounts to 3,151 kWh of savings in electricity consumption (assuming 5 HP pumps). Even at a cost of Rs. 4 per unit (kWh), the state will save about Rs. 12,607 on every ha of paddy converted to SRI management following all of the principles.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

23. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert ? <\/span><\/strong>
\n(a) Lake Victoria <\/span>
\n(b) Lake Faguibine <\/span>
\n(c) Lake Oguta <\/span>
\n(d) Lake Volta<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (B)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

Lake Faguibine<\/strong> sits in northern Mali, 80 kilometres from Timbuktu. In the 1970s, following increasingly disastrous periods of drought, the lake began to evaporate. Gradually, sand dunes replaced the vast expanses of water and farming land irrigated by flooding from the River Niger.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

24. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers ? <\/span><\/strong>
\n(a) Cauvery <\/span>
\n(b) Manjira <\/span>
\n(c) Pennar <\/span>
\n(d) Tungabhadra<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (C)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

Gandikota<\/strong> is a small village in the Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh. The village is majorly known for housing the spectacular gorge which is famously adjudged as the Grand Canyon of India. The stunning gorge has been created by the waters of the famous river Pennar that streams from the Erramala hills. It is also known as the Hidden Grand Canyon of India as it isn\u2019t very well known around the country.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

25. Consider the following pairs :
\n<\/span><\/strong><\/p>\n\n\n\n\n\n\n
Peak\u00a0<\/span><\/strong><\/td>\nMountains<\/span><\/strong><\/td>\n<\/tr>\n
1. Namcha Barwa\u00a0<\/span><\/td>\nGarhwal Himalaya<\/span><\/td>\n<\/tr>\n
2. Nanda Devi\u00a0<\/span><\/td>\nKumaon Himalaya<\/span><\/td>\n<\/tr>\n
3. Nokrek\u00a0<\/span><\/td>\nSikkim Himalaya<\/span><\/td>\n<\/tr>\n<\/tbody>\n<\/table>\n

Which of the pairs given above is\/are correctly matched ? <\/span><\/strong>
\n(a) 1 and 2 <\/span>
\n(b) 2 only <\/span>
\n(c) 1 and 3 <\/span>
\n(d) 3 only<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (B)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

S1 is incorrect :-<\/strong> Namcha Barwa-Tibet.<\/span><\/p>\n

S2 is correct :-<\/strong> Nanda Devi peak forms a part of Kumaon Himalayas. The Kumaon Himalayas comprise the west-central section of the Himalayas in northern India.<\/span><\/p>\n

S3 is incorrect :-<\/strong> Nokrek: Garo hills.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

26. The term \u201cLevant\u201d often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions ? <\/span><\/strong>
\n(a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores <\/span>
\n(b) Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco <\/span>
\n(c) Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa <\/span>
\n(d) The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean Sea.<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (A)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

The Levant<\/strong> is an approximate historical geographical term referring to a large area in the Eastern <\/strong>Mediterranean <\/strong>region of Western Asia.<\/strong> In its narrowest sense, which is in use today in archaeology and other cultural contexts, it is equivalent to a stretch of land bordering the Mediterranean in southwestern Asia,i.e. the historical region of Syria.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

27. Consider the following countries : <\/span><\/strong>
\n1. Azerbaijan <\/span>
\n2. Kyrgyzstan <\/span>
\n3. Tajikistan <\/span>
\n4. Turkmenistan <\/span>
\n5. Uzbekistan <\/span>
\nWhich of the above have borders with Afghanistan ? <\/span><\/strong>
\n(a) 1, 2 and 5 only <\/span>
\n(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only <\/span>
\n(c) 3, 4 and 5 only <\/span>
\n(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (C)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

Statement 3, 4, 5 are correct : –\u00a0 <\/strong>Afghanistan, officially the Islamic Republic of Afghanistan, a mountainous landlocked country in southern Central Asia. It borders Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan to the north, Iran to the west, Pakistan to the east and south. It has a small border section with China and India (disputed because it’s in Pakistan-occupied Kashmir) to the northeast.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

28. With reference to India, consider the following statements : <\/span><\/strong>
\n1. Monazite is a source of rare earths. <\/span>
\n2. Monazite contains thorium. <\/span>
\n3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. <\/span>
\n4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. <\/span>
\nWhich of the statements given above are correct ? <\/span><\/strong>
\n(a) 1, 2 and 3 only <\/span>
\n(b) 1, 2 and 4 only <\/span>
\n(c) 3 and 4 only <\/span>
\n(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (D)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

S1 is correct :<\/strong> –<\/strong> Monazite is a primarily reddishbrown phosphate mineral that contains rare-earth elements. Due to variability in composition, monazite is considered a group of minerals <\/span><\/p>\n

S2 is correct : –<\/strong> Thorium content of monazite is variable and sometimes can be up to 20\u201330%.\u00a0<\/span><\/p>\n

S3 is correct : –\u00a0<\/strong> The beach sands along the coasts of India contain large reserves of strategic minerals like ilmenite, monazite, zircon, etc.<\/span><\/p>\n

S4 is correct : –<\/strong> Monazite is a prescribed substance under the Atomic Energy Act 1962. <\/span>Since Monazite is a ‘prescribed substance’, the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), Government of India, as a policy, has restricted all activities in respect of this substance to Government entities only. Indian Rare Earths Ltd. (IREL), a Public Sector Undertaking under the Department of Atomic Energy, is the only organisation that has been permitted till date to export monazite. The Department has not permitted any other individual or company or entity to export monazite.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

29. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the : <\/span><\/strong>
\n(a) First half of the month of June <\/span>
\n(b) Second half of the month of June <\/span>
\n(c) First half of the month of July <\/span>
\n(d) Second half of the month of July<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (B)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

The longest day of 2021 for those living north of the Equator is June 21. In technical terms, this day is referred to as the summer solstice, the longest day of the summer season. It occurs when the sun is directly over the Tropic of Cancer, or more specifically right over 23.5 degree north latitude.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

30. Consider the following pairs :
\n<\/span><\/strong><\/p>\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n
Wetland \/ Lake\u00a0<\/span><\/strong><\/td>\nLocation<\/span><\/strong><\/td>\n<\/tr>\n
1. Hokera Wetland\u00a0<\/span><\/td>\nPunjab<\/span><\/td>\n<\/tr>\n
2. Renuka Wetland\u00a0<\/span><\/td>\nHimachal Pradesh<\/span><\/td>\n<\/tr>\n
3. Rudrasagar Lake\u00a0<\/span><\/td>\nTripura<\/span><\/td>\n<\/tr>\n
4. Sasthamkotta Lake\u00a0<\/span><\/td>\nTamil Nadu<\/span><\/td>\n<\/tr>\n<\/tbody>\n<\/table>\n

How many pairs given above are correctly matched ? <\/span><\/strong>
\n(a) Only one pair <\/span>
\n(b) Only two pairs <\/span>
\n(c) Only three pairs <\/span>
\n(d) All four pairs<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (B)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

S1 is incorrect:<\/strong> Hokera Wetland – Jammu and Kashmir
\nS3 is incorrect:<\/strong> Sasthamkotta Lake – Kerala.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

31. Consider the following :<\/span><\/strong>
\n1. Aarogya Setu<\/span>
\n2. CoWin <\/span>
\n3. DigiLocker<\/span>
\n4. DIKSHA<\/span>
\nWhich of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms ? <\/span><\/strong>
\n(a) 1 and 2 only<\/span>
\n(b) 2, 3 and 4 only <\/span>
\n(c) 1, 3 and 4 only<\/span>
\n(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (D)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

All are correct
\n<\/strong><\/span>Open source projects are publicly available and accessible, promoting collaborative participation, rapid prototyping, transparency, meritocracy, and community-oriented development. The philosophy behind the concept of an open-source ecosystem is the essential respect for a user\u2019s freedom.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

32. With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements : <\/span><\/strong>
\n1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.<\/span>
\n2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks.<\/span>
\n3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation. <\/span>
\nWhich of the statements given above are correct? <\/span><\/strong>
\n(a) 1 and 2 only<\/span>
\n(b) 2 and 3 only<\/span>
\n(c) 1 and 3 only<\/span>
\n(d) 1, 2 and 3<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (D)<\/strong>
\n<\/span><\/p>\n

All are correct\u00a0<\/strong>
\nWeb 3.0 is the latest Internet technology that leverages machine learning, artificial intelligence and blockchain to achieve real-world human communication. The icing on the cake is that web 3.0 not only allows individuals to own their data, but they will be compensated for their time spent on the web.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

33. With reference to \u201cSoftware as a Service (SaaS)\u201d, consider the following statements : <\/span><\/strong>
\n1. SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields. <\/span>
\n2. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices.<\/span>
\n3. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS. <\/span>
\nWhich of the statements given above are correct ? <\/span><\/strong>
\n(a) 1 and 2 only<\/span>
\n(b) 2 and 3 only<\/span>
\n(c) 1 and 3 only<\/span>
\n(d) 1, 2 and 3<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (D)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

S1 is correct :-<\/strong> Today\u2019s web-based software is flexible enough to be modified for specific business uses but also individual users. Buyers can customize the user interface (UI) to change the look and feel of the program, as well as modify specific areas, such as data fields, to alter what data appears.
\n<\/span><\/p>\n

S2 is correct :-<\/strong> SaaS is a method of software delivery that allows data to be accessed from any device with an internet connection and a web browser.<\/span><\/p>\n

S3 is correct :- <\/strong>Outlook, Hotmail or Yahoo! Mail, are form of SaaS. With these services, one can log into your account over the Internet, often from a web browser. The email software is located on the service provider\u2019s network and your messages are stored there as well. one can access their email and stored messages from a web browser on any computer or Internet-connected device.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

34. Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the \u201cFractional Orbital Bombardment System\u201d often talked about in media ? <\/span><\/strong>
\n(a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. <\/span>
\n(b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. <\/span>
\n(c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. <\/span>
\n(d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (C)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

A Fractional Orbital <\/strong>Bombardment System (FOBS)<\/strong> is a warhead delivery system that uses a low earth orbit towards its target destination. Just before reaching the target, it deorbits through a retrograde engine burn.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

35. Which one of the following is the context in which the term \u201cqubit\u201d is mentioned ? <\/span><\/strong>
\n(a) Cloud Services <\/span>
\n(b) Quantum Computing <\/span>
\n(c) Visible Light Communication Technologies <\/span>
\n(d) Wireless Communication Technologies <\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (B)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

In quantum computing, a qubit or quantum bit is a basic unit of quantum information \u2014<\/strong> the quantum version of the classic binary bit physically realized with a two-state device. A qubit is a two-state (or two level) quantum mechanical system, one of the simplest quantum systems displaying the peculiarity of quantum mechanics.
\nExamples include the spin of the electron in which the two levels can be taken as spin up and spin down; or the polarization of a single photon in which the two states can be taken to be the vertical polarization and the horizontal polarization.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

36. Consider the following communication technologies : <\/span><\/strong>
\n1. Closed-circuit Television <\/span>
\n2. Radio Frequency Identification <\/span>
\n3. Wireless Local Area Network <\/span>
\nWhich of the above are considered Short-Range devices\/technologies ? <\/span><\/strong>
\n(a) 1 and 2 only <\/span>
\n(b) 2 and 3 only <\/span>
\n(c) 1 and 3 only <\/span>
\n(d) 1, 2 and 3<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (D)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

S1 and S2 are correct :-<\/strong>\u00a0 Short Range Devices (SRD) are radio devices that offer a low risk of interference with other radio services, usually because their transmitted power, and hence their range, is low. Eg: CCTV, RFID, Medical implants, Metering devices Remote control.<\/span><\/p>\n

WLAN :-<\/strong> Modern implementations of WLANs range from small in-home networks to large, campus-sized ones to completely mobile networks on airplanes and trains.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

37. Consider the following statements : <\/span><\/strong>
\n1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. <\/span>
\n2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. <\/span>
\n3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. <\/span>
\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?<\/span><\/strong>
\n(a) 1 and 2 only <\/span>
\n(b) 2 and 3 only <\/span>
\n(c) 1 and 3 only <\/span>
\n(d) 1, 2 and 3<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (D)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

S1 and S2 are correct :-<\/strong> Biofilms may form on a wide variety of surfaces, including living tissues, indwelling medical devices, food, industrial or potable water system piping, or natural aquatic systems.
\n<\/span><\/p>\n

S3 is correct :-<\/strong> By forming a biofilm, bacteria protect themselves from host defense, disinfectants, and antibiotics. Bacteria inside biofilm are much more resistant to antimicrobial agents than planktonic forms since bacteria that are unresisting to antimicrobial agents in any way can turn resistant after forming a biofilm.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

38. Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics :<\/span><\/strong>
\n1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.<\/span>
\n2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. <\/span>
\n3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.<\/span>
\nWhich of the statements given above is\/are correct ? <\/span><\/strong>
\n(a) 1 only <\/span>
\n(b) 2 only <\/span>
\n(c) 1 and 3 <\/span>
\n(d) 2 and 3<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (C)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

S1 is correct :-<\/strong> Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. Common probiotic bacteria can include lactobacillus and bifidobacterium. The most common yeast found in probiotics is saccharomyces boulardii.
\n<\/span><\/p>\n

S2 is incorrect :-<\/strong> Probiotics are microorganisms naturally present in the digestive tract that aid in digestion and reduce inflammation. While a person can take probiotic supplements, there are also many probiotic foods available.<\/span><\/p>\n

S3 is correct :-\u00a0<\/strong> There is evidence that probiotics can alleviate symptoms of lactose intolerance. This can occur by increased hydrolysis of lactose in the dairy product and in the small intestine. It can also be achieved by manipulation of the colonic metabolism. However, the precise mechanism how colonic metabolism influences lactose intolerance symptoms is not yet known. The reported studies are not consistent in their experimental set-up, results and conclusions.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

39. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements : <\/span><\/strong>
\n1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. <\/span>
\n2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform. <\/span>
\n3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine. <\/span>
\nWhich of the statements given above are correct? <\/span><\/strong>
\n(a) 1 and 2 only <\/span>
\n(b) 2 and 3 only <\/span>
\n(c) 1 and 3 only <\/span>
\n(d) 1, 2 and 3<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (D)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

All are correct
\nCovishield :<\/strong> mRNA
\nSputnik V:<\/strong> Vector based
\nCOVAXIN:<\/strong> Inactivated pathogen based<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

40. If a major solar storm (solar-flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth ? <\/span><\/strong>
\n1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.<\/span>
\n2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. <\/span>
\n3. Power grids could be damaged.<\/span>
\n4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.<\/span>
\n5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.<\/span>
\n6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.<\/span>
\n7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted <\/span>
\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below : <\/span><\/strong>
\n(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only<\/span>
\n(b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only<\/span>
\n(c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only<\/span>
\n(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (C)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

Solar flares are large explosions from the surface of the sun that emit intense bursts of electromagnetic radiation.<\/span><\/p>\n

The radiation emitted from solar flares travels at the speed of light and can reach Earth from the sun in just over 8 minutes. As such, we don’t have long to respond to such outbursts.<\/span><\/p>\n

The geomagnetic storm could have a technological impact on the man-made power grids and satellites. <\/span><\/p>\n

S5 :-<\/strong> Keyterms \u201cmuch over the planet\u201d: Extreme statement.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

<\/p>\n

41. \u201cClimate Action Tracker\u201d which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: <\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations <\/span>
\n(b) Wing of \u201cInternational Panel of Climate Change\u201d <\/span>
\n(c) Committee under \u201cUnited Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change\u201d <\/span>
\n(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (A)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

Climate Action Tracker<\/strong> – It is an independent scientific analysis that tracks climate actions of governments. It then measures it against the Paris Agreement. It is a collaboration of two organisations, New Climate Institute and Climate Analytics.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

42. Consider the following statements : <\/strong><\/span>
\n1. \u201cThe Climate Group\u201d is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. <\/span>
\n2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative \u201cEP100\u201d. <\/span>
\n3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. <\/span>
\n4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. <\/span>
\n5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the \u201cUnder2 Coalition\u201d. <\/span>
\nWhich of the statements given above are correct? <\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 <\/span>
\n(b) 1, 3 and 4 only <\/span>
\n(c) 2, 3 and 5 only <\/span>
\n(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (B)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

EP100 is a global initiative led by the international nonprofit Climate <\/strong>Group<\/strong>, bringing together over 120 energy smart businesses committed to measuring and reporting on energy efficiency improvements. <\/span><\/p>\n

Energy efficiency is essential as it can deliver over 40% of the reduction in energy related emissions needed to achieve global climate goals. Taking energy efficiency from the boiler room to the boardroom, members are reducing emissions whilst improving competitiveness and inspiring others to follow their lead. <\/span><\/p>\n

Mahindra & Mahindra becomes first company to join EP100.<\/span><\/p>\n

IEA has no link with EP100. EP100 is coalition to Climate change groups. EP100 works on same objectives of IEA but IEA has no role in EP100.<\/span><\/p>\n

Since Statement 2 is eliminated<\/strong> the answer is B<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

43. \u201cIf rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.\u201d Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement ? <\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation. <\/span>
\n(b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.<\/span>
\n(c) Wetlands play a vital role in To maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization. <\/span>
\n(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients. <\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (D)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

Function of Kidney is to remove waste and toxins, excess water from the bloodstream, which is carried out of the body in urine. With the above analogy, you need to pick that function of wetlands which fits with above analogy.<\/span><\/p>\n

Option A is NOT correct :-<\/strong> as it is talking about wetland water cycle.<\/span><\/p>\n

Option B is not correct<\/strong> :- <\/strong>as it is talking about algae which is becoming food for others, here this does not indicate role of Wetlands as Kidney.<\/span><\/p>\n

Option C is not correct :-<\/strong> This may sound appealing for those who have just focused on the word \u201cbalance\u201d, but mind you, kidney role is to remove excess waste.<\/span><\/p>\n

Option D is Correct :-<\/strong> In this option, UPSC talked about wetland function as removing excess \u201cwaste\u201d.<\/div><\/div><\/span><\/p>\n

44. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements : <\/strong><\/span>
\n1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5<\/sub> should not exceed 15 \u03bcg\/m2<\/sup> and annual mean of PM2.5<\/sub> should not exceed 5 \u03bcg\/m3<\/sup> <\/span>
\n2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. <\/span>
\n3. PM10<\/sub> can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. <\/span>
\n4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. <\/span>
\nWhich of the statements correct? <\/strong><\/span>
\n(a) 1, 3 and 4 <\/span>
\n(b) 1 and 4 only <\/span>
\n(c) 2, 3 and 4 <\/span>
\n(d) 1 and 2 only<\/span>
\n

Click To Show Answer\/Hide<\/a><\/h3>
Answer – (B)<\/strong><\/span><\/p>\n

While particles with a diameter of 10 microns or less, (\u2264 PM10) can penetrate and lodge deep inside the lungs, the even more health damaging particles are those with a diameter of 2.5 microns or less, (\u2264 PM2.5). PM2.5 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the blood system.<\/span><\/p>\n

Key Points:\u00a0<\/strong> WHO\u2019s new guidelines recommend air quality levels for six pollutants \u2014 particulate matter (PM 2.5 & PM10), ozone (O\u2083), nitrogen dioxide (NO\u2082) sulfur dioxide (SO\u2082) and carbon monoxide (CO).<\/span><\/p>\n