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NDA II 2019 Exam Paper Part – B (General Aptitude Test) (Answer Key)

UPSC conduct the NDA (National Defence Academy) II Exam – 2019. NDA II 2019 Paper held on 17 November 2019. This paper is Part B (General Aptitude Test). NDA (II) 2019 Part – B (General Aptitude Test) Answer Key available here.

Exam  – NDA (II) 2019
Organized by – UPSC
Part – B (General Aptitude Test)
Date of Exam – 17th November, 2019 

Click Here to Read This Paper Part A (English) 

UPSC NDA (II) 2019 Exam Paper (Answer Key) 

Part – B (General Aptitude Test

 

51. A thin disc and a thin ring, both have mass M and radius R. Both rotate about axes through their center of mass and are perpendicular to their surfaces at the same angular velocity. Which of the following is true ?
(a) The ring has higher kinetic energy
(b) The disc has higher kinetic energy
(c) The ring and the disc have the same kinetic energy
(d) Kinetic energies of both the bodies are zero since they are not in linear motion

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Answer – (A)

52. Let there be an object having some chemicals in it. It starts moving with a uniform velocity v and a chemical reaction starts happening. In this case, which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
1. Chemical reactions happening in the system cannot change the velocity of the center of mass of the object.
2. Chemical reactions happening in the system cannot change kinetic energy of the particles inside with respect to the center of mass of object.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer – (A)

53. In which of the following phenomena do heat waves travel along a straight line with the speed of light?
(a) Thermal conduction
(b) Thermal convection
(c) Thermal radiation
(d) Both, thermal conduction and radiation

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Answer – (C)

54. Which one of the following statements regarding Ohm’s law is not correct?
(a) Ohm’s law is an assumption that current through a conductor is always directly proportional to the potential difference applied to it.
(b) A conducting device obeys Ohm’s law when the resistance of a device is independent of magnitude and polarity of applied potential difference.
(c) A conducting material obeys Ohm’s law when the resistance of material is independent of the magnitude and direction of applied electric field.
(d) All homogeneous materials obey Ohm’s law irrespective of whether the field is within range or strong.

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Answer – (D)

55. When a ball bounces off the ground, which of the following changes suddenly ? (Assume no loss of energy to the floor)
(a) Its speed
(b) Its momentum
(c) Its kinetic energy
(d) Its potential energy

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Answer – (B)

56. Which one of the following compounds does not exhibit a different oxidation number of the same element ?
(a) Pb2O4
(b) Fe3O4
(c) Fe2O3
(d) Mn3O4

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Answer – (B)

57. Which one of the following statements about glass is not correct?
(a) Glass is often said to be a supercooled liquid.
(b) Glass has no definite melting point.
(c) Soda glass is harder than pyrex glass.
(d) Boron is present in pyrex glass.

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Answer – (C)

58. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Both boiling and evaporation are surface phenomena.
(b) Boiling is a surface phenomenon, but evaporation is a bulk phenomenon.
(c) Both boiling and evaporation are bulk phenomena.
(d) Boiling is a bulk phenomenon, but evaporation is a surface phenomenon.

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Answer – (D)

59. Which one of the following statements about diamond and graphite is not correct?
(a) Diamond has a tetrahedral structure, whereas graphite has a hexagonal planar structure.
(b) Both physical and chemical properties of diamond and graphite are different.
(c) Graphite is soft but diamond is hard.
(d) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity while diamond is not.

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Answer – (B)

60. The raw materials used for the manufacture of Portland cement are
(a) Lime, silies and sulphur dioxide
(b) Lime, silica and carbon dioxide
(c) Lime, silica and alumina
(d) Lime, silica and boric acid

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Answer – (C)

61. Which one of the following statements about water is not true?
(a) Hydrogen bonds are present in liquid water.
(b) Water has a high boiling point.
(c) Water has a high heat of fusion.
(d) Water is a non-polar molecule.

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Answer – (D)

62. A sample of ‘soft soap contains
(a) Caesium
(b) Potassium
(c) Calcium
(d) Magnesium

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Answer – (B)

63. If an object moves at a non-zero constant Acceleration for a certain interval of time, then the distance it covers in that time
(a) depends on its initial velocity.
(b) is independent of its initial velocity.
(c) increases linearly with time.
(d) depends on its initial displacement.

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Answer – (A)

64. A solid disc and a solid sphere have the same mass and same radius. Which one has the higher moment of inertia about its centre of mass?
(a) The disc
(b) The sphere
(c) Both have the same moment of inertia
(d) The information provided sufficient to answer the question

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Answer – (A)

65. Two substances of densities ρ1, and ρ2, are mixed in equal volume and their relative density is 4. When they are mixed in equal masses, relative density is 3. The values of ρ1, and ρ2 respectively are
(a) 6, 2
(b) 3, 5
(c) 12, 4
(d) 9, 3

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Answer – (A)

66. A car starts from Bengaluru, goes 50 km in a straight line towards south, immediately turns around and returns to Bengaluru. The time taken for this round trip is 2 hours. The magnitude of the average velocity of the ear for this round trip
(a) is 0.
(b) is 50 km/hr.
(c) is 25 km/hr.
(d) cannot be calculated without knowing acceleration.

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Answer – (A)

67. “The sum of emfs and potential differences around a closed loop equals zero” is a consequence of
(a) Ohm’s law.
(b) Conservation of charge.
(c) Conservation of momentum.
(d) Conservation of energy.

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Answer – (D)

68. A student measures certain lengths using a meter scale having least count equal to 1 mm. Which one of the following measurements is more precise ?
(a) 0.50 mm
(b) 29.07 cm
(c) 0.925 m
(d) 910 mm

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Answer – (C)

69. If the work done on the system or by the system is zero, which one of the following statements for a gas kept at a certain temperature is correct?
(a) Change in internal energy of the system is equal to flow of heat in or out of the system.
(b) Change in internal energy of the system is less than heat transferred.
(c) Change in internal energy of the system is more than the heat flow.
(d) Cannot be determined.

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Answer – (A)

70. Consider the following part of an electric circuit :

NDA II Answer Key

The total electrical resistance in the given part of the electric circuit is
(a) 15/8 ohm
(b) 15/7 ohm
(c) 15 ohm
(d) 17/3 ohm

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Answer – (B)

NDA II 2019 Exam Paper Part – A (English) (Answer Key)

UPSC conduct the NDA (National Defence Academy) II Exam – 2019. NDA II 2019 Paper held on 17 November 2019. This paper is Part A (English). NDA (II) 2019 Part – A (English) Answer Key available here.

Exam  – NDA (II) 2019
Organized by – UPSC
Part – A (English)
Date of Exam – 17th November, 2019 

Click Here to Read This Paper Part B (General Aptitude Test)

UPSC NDA (II) 2019 Exam Paper (Answer Key) 

Part – A (English) 

Synonyms

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

1. He is always anxious.
(a) worried
(b) dispassionate
(c) sluggish
(d) torpid

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Answer – (A)

2. The poems of Kabir are ecstatic in nature
(a) efficacious
(b) eerie
(c) rapturous
(d) reverential

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Answer – (D)

3 . Ravi loves seclusion. Therefore, he lives in the mountains.
(a) nature
(b) scripture
(c) seafaring
(d) solitariness

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Answer – (D)

4. Hitler was a despot.
(a) conservative
(b) dictator
(c) passionate
(d) monstrous

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Answer – (B)

5. The imagery used in the poem is vivid.
(a) lively
(b) inert
(c) ebullient
(d) caustic

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Answer – (A)

6. A human being is always vulnerable to other human beings.
(a) resilient
(b) elastic
(c) defenceless
(d) crude

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Answer – (C)

7. His language is political and vitriolic.
(a) imaginative
(b) sprightly
(c) vivacious
(d) abusive

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Answer – (D)

8. The Managing Director of the company declared that he is broke and there is a need to seek support from the government.
(a) bankrupt
(b) rich
(c) making profit
(d) having liabilities

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Answer – (A)

9. He loves doing nasty things.
(a) nice
(b) fastidious
(c) foul
(d) finicky

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Answer – (C)

10. He could not muster courage to speak the truth before his friend.
(a) injure
(b) spoil
(c) gather
(d) maim

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Answer – (C)

Antonyms

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

11. His conversations are always absurd.
(a) farcical
(b) foolish
(c) preposterous
(d) rational

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Answer – (D)

12. The politician was a dissident.
(a) agitator
(b) rebel
(c) conformist
(d) revolutionary

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Answer – (C)

13. He wrote an incisive article on corruption in politics.
(a) vague
(b) penetrating
(c) trenchant
(d) precise

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Answer – (A)

14. Rakesh is an eccentric prodigal.
(a) extravagant
(b) profligate
(c) wasteful
(d) thrifty

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Answer – (D)

15. Friendship is always reciprocal.
(a) mutual
(b) one-sided
(c) shared
(d) corresponding

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Answer – (B)

16. The debate was highly stimulating.
(a) arousing
(b) invigorating
(c) boring
(d) stirring

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Answer – (C)

17. Malaria is a widespread disease.
(a) endemic
(b) pervasive
(c) common
(d) rare

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Answer – (A)

18. The bill received a vehement resistance from the opposition party in the Parliament.
(a) animated
(b) apathetic
(c) fervent
(d) vigorous

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Answer – (B)

19. He has been obstinate since his childhood.
(a) stubborn
(b) dogged
(c) amenable
(d) rigid

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Answer – (C)

20. Mahatma Gandhi was one of the most prominent leaders of his times.
(a) renowned
(b) distinguishable
(c) eminent
(d) unknown

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Answer – (D)

UPSC NDA I Exam 2019 – General Aptitude Test Part – B (Answer Key)

UPSC conduct the NDA (National Defence Academy) I Exam – 2019. NDA I 2019 Paper held on 21 April 2019. This paper is General Aptitude Test Part B. NDA (I) 2019 General Aptitude Test Answer Key available here.

Exam  – NDA (I) 2019
Organized by – UPSC
Subject – General Aptitude Test
Date of Exam – 21 – April – 2019 

 

UPSC NDA (I) 2019 Exam Paper (Answer Key) 
Subject – General Aptitude Test  (Part – B)

 

Click Here To Read (Part A)

51. An Election Commissioner can be removed from office on the recommendation of
(a) The Chief Justice of India
(b) The Chief Election Commissioner
(c) The President of India
(d) The Parliament

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Answer – (B)

52. Which one of the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha is NOT correct?
(a) Its members are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of a State
(b) The election follows the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote
(c) 1/3rd of its members retire after every two years
(d) It is a permanent body, but can be dissolved earlier by the President

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Answer – (D)

53. Fundamental right guaranteed under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is available only to the citizens of India ?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 20
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 22

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Answer – (A)

54. The treaty of Yandabo was signed in
(a) 1826
(b) 1825
(c) 1824
(d) 1823

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Answer – (A)

55. In the Manusmriti which form of marriage results from the “Voluntary union of a maiden and her lover”?
(a) Eighth form
(b) Fifth form
(c) Seventh form
(d) Sixth form

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Answer – (D)

56. Consider the following description of the Samadhi of a former Prime Minister of India :
Central Samadhi platform comprises nine square black polished granite solid stone blocks, capped with a ‘Diya’ in the centre. The number nine holds significance and represents the navarasas, navaratras and navagrahas. Then placement of the nine-square Samadhi is in a circular lotus shaped pattern. The nine-square platform is accessed in four cardinal directions by pathways made in white composite tiles so that the floor does not get heated.
Identify the Samadhi :
(a) Shakti Sthal
(b) Shantivan
(c) Sadaiv Atal
(d) Veer Bhumi

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Answer – (C)

57. IMBEX is a joint exercise conducted regularly between Armies of India and
(a) Malaysia
(b) Maldives
(c) Mauritius
(d) Myanmar

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Answer – (D)

58. Who among the following was awarded The Hindu Prize in Fiction category for the year 2018?
(a) Neelum Saran Gour
(b) N Kalyan Raman
(c) Manoranjan Byapari
(d) Arunav Sinha

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Answer – (A)

59. Who among the following was appointed as head of the seven member committee to look into revenue shortfall being faced by the states after the GST roll-out in India and suggest steps for augmenting collections ?
(a) Himanta Biswa Sharma
(b) Thomas Isaac
(c) Sushil Modi
(d) Capt Abhimanyu

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Answer – (C)

60. The 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas, 2019 was held in
(a) New Delhi
(b) Gandhi Nagar
(c) Prayagraj
(d) Varanasi

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Answer – (D)

61. Which one of the following cities was named by UNESCO as World Capital of Architecture for 2020 ?
(a) Tokyo
(b) Johannesburg
(c) Rio de Janerio
(d) New Delhi

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Answer – (C)

62. Who among the following was named ICC’s emerging player of the year 2018?
(d) Arunav Sinha
(a) Rishabh Pant
(b) Josh Hazlewood
(c) Hasan Ali
(d) Mustafizur Rahman

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Answer – (A)

63. India’s first private sector Howitzer gun-making unit is located at
(a) Jamshedpur
(b) Kolkata
(c) Hazira
(d) Gwalior

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Answer – (C)

64. Which of the following pairs of old names and new names of islands in India is/are correctly matched ?
1. Ross Island : Shaheed Dweep
2. Neil Island : Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose Dweep
3. Havelock : Swaraj Dweep Island
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 only

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Answer – (D)

65. Who among the following was posthumously conferred with the Ashoka Chakra, India’s highest peacetime gallantry award, in 2019?
(a) Jyoti Prakash Nirala
(b) Nazir Ahmad Wani
(c) Hangpan Dada
(d) Mohan Nath Goswami

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Answer – (B)

66. As per the code of the nomenclature, which one of the following is the correct way of writing a biological name?
(a) Amoeba Proteus
(b) Amoeba proteus
(c) amoeba proteus
(d) Amoeba Proteus

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Answer – (B)

67. Which one of the following state ments regarding Electrocardiogram is correct?
(a) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of electrical activity of cornea
(b) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of activity of kidney
(c) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of activity of brain
(d) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of electrical activity of heart

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Answer – (D)

68. Which one of the following statements regarding Penicillin is correct ?
(a) Penicillin resistant bacteria can store this antibiotic in vacuole
(b) Penicillin resistant bacteria can degrade this antibiotic by an enzyme called β-lactamase
(c) Penicillin resistant bacteria can degrade this antibiotic by an enzyme called lactic acid dehydro genase
(d) Penicillin is not absorbed by bacteria; so most bacteria are resistant

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Answer – (B)

69. Which one of the following organelles of mammalian cell is rich in hydrolytic enzymes?
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Ribosomes
(c) Lysosome
(d) Nucleus

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Answer – (C)

70. Which one of the following statements regarding Cholera is correct ?
(a) Cholera is a disease that causes loss of memory
(b) Cholera is a disease of muscles due to consumption of alcohol
(c) Cholera is a disease due to consumption of contaminated food or water
(d) Cholera is a genetic disease

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Answer – (C)

UPSC NDA I Exam 2019 – General Aptitude Test Part – A (Answer Key)

UPSC conduct the NDA (National Defence Academy) I Exam – 2019. NDA I 2019 Paper held on 21 April 2019. This paper is General Aptitude Test Part A. NDA (I) 2019 General Aptitude Test Answer Key available here.

Exam  – NDA (I) 2019
Organized by – UPSC
Subject – General Aptitude Test
Date of Exam – 21 – April – 2019 

Click Here To Read (Part B)

UPSC NDA (I) 2019 Exam Paper (Answer Key) 
Subject – General Aptitude Test  (Part – A)

 

SYNONYMS

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

1. Some people complain when they encounter a small misfortune in the course of their thoroughly happy life.
(a) run into
(b) run away
(c) run down
(d) run with

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Answer – (A)

2. This world is full of miseries.
(a) indifferent love
(b) perfect happiness
(c) great suffering
(d) moderate sympathies

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Answer – (C)

3. A glance at a beautiful object gives us delight.
(a) wisdom
(b) happiness
(c) purity
(d) peace

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Answer – (B)

4. It is terrible for people to die of starvation.
(a) starch
(b) staple
(c) plenty
(d) hunger

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Answer – (D)

5. The university has constituted a grievance redressal committee to look into the matter.
(a) depression
(b) complaint
(c) abrasion
(d) gratefulness

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Answer – (B)

6. Rakesh delivered a slanderous speech.
(a) abusive
(b) praiseworthy
(c) moderate
(d) inspiring

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Answer – (A)

7. Suddenly, the sky was darkened by a gigantic bird.
(a) winged
(b) small
(c) tiny
(d) enormous

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Answer – (D)

8. To abolish poverty would be to destroy the soil upon which mankind produces the virtues conducive to higher civilization
(a) detest
(b) eradicate
(c) nurture
(d) assimilate

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Answer – (B)

9. The Arabs who are not in the cities live in the desert throughout the year, shifting from one oasis to another.
(a) sandbank
(b) mound
(c) dune
(d) spring

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Answer – (D)

10. The various facets of life can be found reflected in a large city.
(a) several
(b) similar
(c) valuable
(d) singular

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Answer – (A)

SPOTTING ERRORS

Directions : Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

11. Opening his letters, (a)/ reading them carefully and sending for his clerk, (b)/ he dictated answers with them. (c)/ No error. (d)

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Answer – (B)

12. He was my school-friend, (a)/ but becoming a great man,(b) / he has grown proud enough to forget his old friends. (c)/ No error. (d)

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Answer – (C)

13. Rabindranath Tagore, (a)/ a Nobel laureate and the author of the national anthem, (b)/ found Shantiniketan.(c)/ No error. (d)

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Answer – (C)

14. The art of printing was introduced into England (a)/ during the reign of Edward IV (b)/ by William Caxton, a native of Kent. (c) No error. (d)

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Answer – (A)

15. From thirty years (a) / he devoted himself to public affairs (b)/  without taking a holiday. (c) / No error.

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Answer – (A)

16. If Ramesh will be promoted (a) / he will get (b) /  a higher salary. (c) / No error. (d)

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Answer – (A)

17. My brother goes (a)/ to the office (b) / five day week. (c) / No error. (d)

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Answer – (C)

18. If you lend Mohan a pen (a) / he will lend it to someone else (b) / and never you will get it back. (c) / No error. (d)

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Answer – (C)

19. One of most widely spread (a) / bad habits (b) / is the use of tobacco. © /  No error. (d)

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Answer – (B)

20. A great part (a) / of Arabia (b) / is desert. (c) / No error. (d)

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Answer – (A)

 

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